Answer:
Total cost= $930
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Copy Center pays an average wage of $12 per hour.
Overhead rate= $18 per direct labor hour
Job M-47:
used $330 of direct materials and took 20 direct labor hours of labor to complete.
Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead
Total cost= 330 + 20*12 + 20*$18= $930
Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per machine-hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated overhead costs= $3,400,000 for indirect labor
Estimated overhead costs= $850,000 for factory utilities.
85,000 machine hours are planned for this next year
To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (3,400,000 + 850,000) / 85,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per machine-hour
FDI , Foreign direct investment
Answer:
▫️Increased savings. • Fewer injuries. • More productive and sustainable employees. ...
▫️Fewer employees experiencing pain. • Implementing ergonomic improvements can reduce the risk factors that lead to discomfort.
▫️Increased productivity. • ...
▫️Increased morale. • ...
▫️Reduced absenteeism. •
<em><u>hope </u></em><em><u>it's </u></em><em><u>help </u></em><em><u>you</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>! </u></em>
<em><u>plz </u></em><em><u>mark </u></em><em><u>as </u></em><em><u>brain </u></em><em><u>list </u></em><em><u>and </u></em><em><u>follow </u></em><em><u>me </u></em><em><u>#</u></em><em><u>rishu.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>! </u></em>
Answer:
Since on distribution on complete liquidation to shareholder will taxable on both hand (company and shareholdeR) .shareholder will pay tax on FMVless adjusted basis and corporate will pay tax on gain (FMV-adjusted basis of asset ).
since taxability in both hands will result in double taxation ,any gain/loss will be taxed in shareholders hand and corporate tax liability will be minimal'
so correct option is "D" -no gain recognised.