Answer:
10.4%
Explanation:
The computation of expected return on a portfolio is shown below:-
Expected return = Risk Free return + 5%Beta ( Market Return - Risk Free return)
= 5% + 0.60 × (17% - 8%)
= 5% + 5.4%
= 10.4%
Therefore for computing the expected return on a portfolio with a beta of .6 we simply applied the above formula.
The market return less risk free return is known as market risk premium
Answer:
a
Explanation:
they need a absolute certainty to search your house like what
<h3>Hello there!</h3>
Your question asks what an opportunity cost of an action is.
<h3>Answer: D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action.</h3>
The reason why answer choice "D). is a subjective valuation that can be determined only by the individual who chooses the action" is correct because an opportunity cost of an action is not the same for everyone.
An opportunity cost of an action is subjective, meaning that the action can be determined by someone's opinion, feelings, etc. Everyone thinks differently, therefore making everyone's opportunity cost of action different.
A opportunity cost of an action also is determined by the individual themselves, not anyone else. That's why the action is subjective, due to the fact that the decision on the action is determined by the individual personal opinions and feelings.
<h3>I hope this helps!</h3><h3>Best regards,</h3><h3>MasterInvestor</h3>
The contradiction can be explained by the substitutability between Jimmy Choo shoes and other shoes.
Substitutability is the ability of goods or services to be replaced by another good or services to be replaced by another good or service in use or consumption. Substitute goods are goods which, as a result of changed conditions, may replace each other in use. For example in this case, jimmy choo faces other competitors who have substitute shoes.
<span>25 years: No Payment, but total is 250000
6 months earlier. Payment of "P". It's value 1/2 year later is P(1+0.03)
6 months earlier. Payment of "P". It's value 1 year later is P(1+0.03)^2
6 months earlier. Payment of "P". It's value 1½ years later is P(1+0.03)^3
6 months earlier. Payment of "P". It's value 2 years later is P(1+0.03)^4
</span><span>We need to recognize these patterns. Similarly, we can identify the accumulated value of all 50 payments of "P". Starting from the last payment normally is most clear.
</span>
<span>P(1.03) + P(1.03)^2 + P(1.03)^3 + ... + P(1.03)^50
That needs to make sense. After that, it's an algebra problem.
P[(1.03) + (1.03)^2 + (1.03)^3 + ... + (1.03)^50]
</span>
P(<span><span>1.03−<span>1.03^51)/(</span></span><span>1−1.03) </span></span>= <span>250000</span>
