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Elis [28]
3 years ago
13

Determine if the given mapping phi is a homomorphism on the given groups. If so, identify its kernel and whether or not the mapp

ing is 1-1 or onto. (a) G is a group, phi: G rightarrow G is defined by phi (a) = a^-1 for a elementof G. (b) G is an abelian group, n > 1 is a fixed integer, and phi: G rightarrow G is defined by phi (a) = a^n for a elementof G. (c) phi: C^x rightarrow R^x with phi (a) = |a|. (d) phi: R rightarrow C^x with phi (x) = cos x + i sin x.
Mathematics
1 answer:
shtirl [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(a) No. (b)Yes. (c)Yes. (d)Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) If \phi: G \longrightarrow G is an homomorphism, then it must hold

that b^{-1}a^{-1}=(ab)^{-1}=\phi(ab)=\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^{-1}b^{-1},

but the last statement is true if and only if G is abelian.

(b) Since G is abelian, it holds that

\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^nb^n=(ab)^{n}=\phi(ab)

which tells us that \phi is a homorphism. The kernel of \phi

is the set of elements g in G such that g^{n}=1. However,

\phi is not necessarily 1-1 or onto, if G=\mathbb{Z}_6 and

n=3, we have

kern(\phi)=\{0,2,4\} \quad \text{and} \quad\\\\Im(\phi)=\{0,3\}

(c) If z_1,z_2 \in \mathbb{C}^{\times} remeber that

|z_1 \cdot z_2|=|z_1|\cdot|z_2|, which tells us that \phi is a

homomorphism. In this case

kern(\phi)=\{\quad z\in\mathbb{C} \quad | \quad |z|=1 \}, if we write a

complex number as z=x+iy, then |z|=x^2+y^2, which tells

us that kern(\phi) is the unit circle. Moreover, since

kern(\phi) \neq \{1\} the mapping is not 1-1, also if we take a negative

real number, it is not in the image of \phi, which tells us that

\phi is not surjective.

(d) Remember that e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x), using this, it holds that

\phi(x+y)=e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}=\phi(x)\phi(x)

which tells us that \phi is a homomorphism. By computing we see

that  kern(\phi)=\{2 \pi n| \quad n \in \mathbb{Z} \} and

Im(\phi) is the unit circle, hence \phi is neither injective nor

surjective.

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