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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
14

3-2(1+2)? 1 (1+2) 1+2 3

Mathematics
2 answers:
drek231 [11]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

your method is wrong, final answer should be -3

Step-by-step explanation:

symbols are used in the order of bracket first, then multiplication and division, then addition and subtraction

i.e.

3 - 2(1 + 2)

= 3 - 2(3)

= 3 - 6

= -3

tekilochka [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

What? Can you be more specific?

Step-by-step explanation:

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Based on Pythagorean identities, which equation is true? A. Sin^2 theta -1= cos^2 theta B. Sec^2 theta-tan^2 theta= -1 C. -cos^2
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

our basic Pythagorean identity is cos²(x) + sin²(x) = 1

we can derive the 2 other using the listed above.

1. (cos²(x) + sin²(x))/cos²(x) = 1/cos²(x)

1 + tan²(x) = sec²(x)

2.(cos²(x) + sin²(x))/sin²(x) = 1/sin²(x)

cot²(x) + 1 = csc²(x)

A. sin^2 theta -1= cos^2 theta

this is false

cos²(x) + sin²(x) = 1

isolating cos²(x)

cos²(x) = 1-sin²(x), not equal to sin²(x)-1

B. Sec^2 theta-tan^2 theta= -1

1 + tan²(x) = sec²(x)

sec²(x)-tan(x) = 1, not -1

false

C. -cos^2 theta-1= sin^2

cos²(x) + sin²(x) = 1

sin²(x) = 1-cos²(x), our 1 is positive not negative, so false

D. Cot^2 theta - csc^2 theta=-1

cot²(x) + 1 = csc²(x)

isolating 1

1 = csc²(x) - cot²(x)

multiplying both sides by -1

-1 = cot²(x) - csc²(x)

TRUE

3 0
3 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
Mama L [17]

Answer:

(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725

(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

n = 8 --- 8 friends

p = 15\% --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}

P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}

P(x = 0) = 0.85^8

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

Solving (b): P(x \ge 1)

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1

Rewrite as:

P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)

P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725

P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

Solving (c): P(x\le 2)--- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

We have:

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}

P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7

P(x = 1) = 0.3847

P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}

P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6

P(x = 2) = 0.2376

So:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376

P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

4 0
3 years ago
Which fact helps you prove the isosceles triangle theorem, which states that the base angles of any isosceles triangle have equa
svetoff [14.1K]

Answer:

D the last option

I got this answer right on ed

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3 years ago
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Evelyn drinks 8 glasses of water,which is 56 glasses of water a week.How many glasses of water does she drink in a year?(1 year
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Evelyn drinks 2,912 glasses of water a year.
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There is a bag filled with 4 blue, 3 red and 5 green marbles.
zhannawk [14.2K]

Answer:

You are selecting marbles with replacement. The marble selections (trials) are independent and the marble selection follows the binomial distribution.

The probability of selecting a red marble the first time is 1313.

(This is because 4 out of 12 marbles are red and412412 reduces to 1313.

The probability of selecting a red marble the second time is 1313.

The marble selections are independent and you can multiply the two probabilities to get the following:

probability of getting 2 reds = (13)2(13)2

=19=19.

So the probability of getting two reds is 1919.

7 0
3 years ago
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