Answer:
Labour time (efficiency) variance = $9,984 unfavorable
Explanation:
<em>The labour time variance is the dollar value of the difference between the standard time allowed for the actual output produced and the actual time used.</em>
Hours
Standard hours ( 960 units × 7.2 hours ) = 6,912
Actual hours <u>7,680</u>
Time variance 768 Unfavorable
× standard labour rate <u>× $13</u>
Variance <u> $9,984 </u>Unfavorable
Always agreeing with anyone above you
Not accepting ideas
Lack of communication, up and down and across
Keeping information inaccessible
Not understanding your customers
Staff don't participate in any decisions
No team work, everyone out for themselves
Little chance of advancement
No reward system
Not following their own policies
Inconsistency in products or service
Maybe that's enough, huh?
Answer:
The price of the bond is $ 1,041.22
Explanation:
In calculating the price of the bond i discounted the future cashflows consisting of coupon payment and par value at redemption using the discount factor 1/(1+r)^N where r is the semi-annual YTM and N is the relevant period of cash flow.
The remaining coupon payments imply 14 years as a year has passed since the bond was issued.
Find attached spreadsheet.
The cycle time of this process for the firm is 2.89.
<h3>What is a Cycle Time?</h3>
This refers to the average time between the start of production of one unit and the start of production of the next unit of production
Cycle Time = Net time available to work / Customer demand
Cycle Time = 1.1 + 1.5 / 0.9
Cycle Time = 2.88888888889
Cycle Time = 2.89.
Therefore, the cycle time of this process for the firm is 2.89.
Read more about cycle time
<em>brainly.com/question/18802868</em>
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Answer:
If banks hold excess reserves, then the money multiplier will be smaller.
Explanation:
It is easier to understand using an example:
required reserve rate = 5%
money multiplier = 1 / 5% = 20
if $100 are injected in to the economy and they are deposited in the banking system, the money supply will increase by $100 x 20 = $2,000. But this calculation only works if banks lend 100% of the loanable funds, but if instead banks only lend $90, instead of $95 ($100 x 95%), then the money multiplier will be 1 / 10% = 10. In this case, the money supply will only increase by half