1540 is the answer to the prime factorization
There is a 40% possibility of making 0 points.
There is a (.6)(.4) = 24% possibility of making 1 point.
There is a (.6)(.6) = 36% possibility of making 2 points.
Expected value = 0 * .40 + 1 * .24 + 2 * .36 = 0.96
a) She is most likely to make 0.96 points.
b)
Expected value = 0 * ( .4) + 1 * (.6)(.3) + 2 * (.6)(.7)
she is most likely to make 1.8 points.
Hope I helped.
Could you please mark me brainliest.
-5cd
I don't know if this is what you asked...hope it helped!
Answer:
18 seconds
Step-by-step explanation:
5x9=45 so 2x9=18
Answer:
Median
mean>median
Step-by-step explanation:
When the data is skewed to right the suitable average is median. Median is suitable because it is less effected by extreme values and thus locate the center of the distribution perfectly. Here the salaries of basket players are skewed to right and the best measure of central tendency to measure the center of distribution is median.
When the frequency distribution is rightly skewed then the relationship of mean and median is that mean is greater than median that is Mean>median.
Hence when the distribution is skewed to right the best choice to measure the center of distribution is median and when the data is skewed to right mean is greater than median.
