The Answer Is In Fact "Liquefaction".
Hope I Helped :)
Answer:
a practice that may have longer term implications on the ethics of personal privacy
Explanation:
Cookies are a tool that is used on websites to identify user browser history.
The information on a user's browsing habits is then used by businesses to tailor display information relevant to what they are usually interested in.
Usually they are a safe way to improve browsing experience, but they can be used by criminals to spy on people and gain unwanted access to their data.
Cookies save information about a user session by storing data like usernames.
There is a long term danger of having one's browsing history tracked without their consent
Answer:
option (C) - 6.11%
Explanation:
Data provided :
Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065
Semiannual coupon rate =
= 0.0325
Face value = $1,000
Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072
Semiannual Present market yield, r =
= 0.036
Now,
With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C
= 0.0325 × $1,000
= $32.5
Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year
or
n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods
Therefore,
The present value = ![C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7Br%7D%5D%2BFV%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D)
= ![\$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%2432.5%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D%29%7D%7B0.036%7D%5D%2B%5C%241%2C000%5Ctimes%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D)
or
= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147
= $567.42 + $371.47
= $938.89
Hence,
The percent change in bond price = 
= 
= - 6.11%
therefore,
the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%
Answer:
23.68%
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of not taking a cash discount is shown below:-
Cost of not taking a cash discount = [Discount percentage ÷ (100% - Disc.%)] × (360 ÷ (Final due date - Discount period))
= (2% ÷ 98%) × (360 ÷ (50 - 19))
= 2.04% × 11.61
= 23.68%
Therefore for computing the cost of not taking a cash discount we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
¥114.96/€
Explanation:
An intermarket arbitrage opportunity is the act of exploiting an arbitrage opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies in the foreign exchange market. Trading in foreign exchange takes place worldwide, the major currency trading centers are located in London, New York, and Tokyo.
In the given question, if you reverse all three exchange rates by calculating 1/rate (change yendollar into dollaryen and so forth), the choice that represents the required opportunity is ¥114.96/€