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Len [333]
3 years ago
15

Contribution margin is a.the same as sales revenue b.the excess of sales revenue over variable cost c.another term for volume in

cost-volume-profit analysis d.profit
Business
1 answer:
Kisachek [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": the excess of sales revenue over variable cost.

Explanation:

In its most simple form, contribution margin is calculated by subtracting variable costs and expenses from revenues. Contribution margin represents a part of the company's revenues that are not allocated for variable cost. Thus, that portion is used to pay the firm's fixed costs. Contribution margin is low usually for <em>labor-intensive</em> entities while <em>capital-intensive</em> companies tend to have a higher contribution margin.

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On January 1, 2018, Moore, a fast-food company, had a balance in its Cash account of $54,000. During the 2018 accounting period,
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

Net cash flow as at the year end=          $22,100

Explanation:

The statement of cash flows for Moore shall be calculated as follows:

Cash balance as at January 1, 2018=     $54,000

Cash inflow from operating activities=  $35,600

Cash outflow from investing activities= ($43,000)

Cash outflow from financing activities= ($24,500)

Net cash flow as at the year end=          $22,100

4 0
4 years ago
Taylor Company has $10,000 of assets, $2,000 of liabilities, and $5,000 of common stock. Based on this information alone, the co
Citrus2011 [14]

Based on this information alone, the company's retained earnings equal $3,000.

<h3>Retained earning</h3>

Using this formula

Retained earning= Assets-liabilities-Common stock

Where:

Assets=$10,000

Liabilities=$2,000

Common stock=$5,000

Let plug in the formula

Retained earning=$10,000-$2,000-$5,000

Retained earning=$3,000

Inconclusion  the company's retained earnings equal $3,000.

Learn more about retained earning here:brainly.com/question/25631040

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is true? Gross private domestic investment less depreciation is net private domestic investmen
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

Gross private domestic investment less depreciation is net private domestic investment.

Explanation:

Investment is addition to capital stock during a period of time. Depreciation is fall in value of fixed (capital) assets due to usage, wear & tear, obsolescence.  

Gross Private Domestic Investment = Total addition to capital stock by private domestic sector, without accounting for depreciation of existing capital stock.

Net Private Domestic Investment = Addition to capital stock by private domestic sector, accounting for depreciation deduction of existing capital stock.

So, Gross Private Domestic Investment - Depreciation = Net Private Domestic Investment.

3 0
3 years ago
A good process should __________ and remove the inflexibility of a defined procedure of operation.
pickupchik [31]

A good process should<u> facilitate the adaptability</u> and remove the inflexibility of a defined procedure of operation.

Answer: Option 1.

<u>Explanation:</u>

A good process is the one which does not remain the same forever. It should have facilities for accepting the changes where ever they are needed. The changes should be done with time.

A good process should not be inflexible and it should be flexible. The flexibility only should make it adaptable to the changes over a period of time for more development.

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are examples of opportunity costs? Check all that apply.
gtnhenbr [62]

The answer is a and c I know this because if you spend time or money on on something you can not do the other and that is exactly what is happening.

7 0
3 years ago
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