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Juliette [100K]
3 years ago
13

In the context of the stages of organizational decline, which of the following is a difference between the faulty action stage a

nd the crisis stage?a. In the faulty action stage, the company is dissolved through bankruptcy proceedings, whereas in the crisis stage, management recognizes the need to change but still takes no steps.b. In the faulty action stage, management announces belt-tightening plans designed to cut costs, increase efficiency, and restore profits, whereas in the crisis stage, bankruptcy or dissolution is likely to occur unless the company completely reorganizes the way it does business.c. In the faulty action stage, managers wait to see if organizational performance problems correct themselves, whereas in the crisis stage, companies completely reorganize the way they do business.d. In the faulty action stage, companies typically lack the resources to fully change how they run their businesses, whereas in the crisis stage, managers assume that if they just run a tighter ship, company performance will return to previous levels.
Business
1 answer:
balu736 [363]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B

Explanation:

Organizational decline happen or occur when the companies or the firms does not anticipate, acknowledge, adapt the external or the internal pressures or neutralize, which threaten the survival of the company or firm.

And in the stage of the faulty action, it arises because of the increasing costs and the decreasing profits and the market share. The management states the plans of the belt tightening, which is established or designed in order to cut the costs, restore the profits and to increase the efficiency.

The stage of crisis, where the dissolution or the bankruptcy is likely to happen unless the firm completely acknowledge the way it does the business. But the companies lack the resources required to fully change how they should run their business.

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Ann [662]

Answer:

Flashfone and Pictech

a. If Flashfone prices high, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low___ price, and if Flashfone prices low, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)___low____ price.

b. If Pictech prices high, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)__low____price, and if Pictech prices low, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low____ price.

c. Considering all of the information given, pricing high (is, is not) _is not_ a dominant strategy for both Flashfone and Pictech.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                 Pictech Pricing

                                     High        Low

Flashfone Pricing High 11, 11        2, 18

                             Low  18, 2      10, 10

b) A dominant strategy exists if Pictech or Flashfone would implement a particular strategy that benefits it no matter what the other firm does.

3 0
2 years ago
Target Profit Beard Company sells a product for $15 per unit. The variable cost is 10 per unit, and fixed costs are 1,750,000. D
lakkis [162]

Answer:

a. Break-even point in sales units = 350,000 units

b. Break- even point in sales units to achieve a target profit of $400,000 = 430,000 units

Explanation:

a. Break-even point in sales units = Fixed cost ÷ Contribution margin per unit

= $1,750,000 ÷ $5

= 350,000 units

Working note:- Contribution margin = $15 - $10 = $5

b. Break- even point in sales units to achieve a target profit of $400,000 = fixed cost + Targeted profit ÷ Contribution margin per unit

= $1,750,000 + $400,000 ÷ $5

= $2,150,000 ÷ $5

= 430,000 units

8 0
3 years ago
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Harrizon [31]

Answer:

normative control

Explanation:

Normative control refers to using the values that the employees share as standards instead of using policies to influence the desired behaviors. According to this, the answer is that this is an example of normative control because Gary employs people that share certain values and behaviors and these become the standard to perform their jobs.

4 0
3 years ago
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Andrew [12]

Answer:

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8 0
2 years ago
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ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

d. $7,000.

Explanation:

The computation of the loss recorded due to asset impairment is shown below:

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= $7,000

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Therefore, only $7,000 should be recorded as a loss on impairment of the asset

8 0
2 years ago
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