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maxonik [38]
4 years ago
11

Explain the steps you could use to solve 3y+6=30 to find y.

Mathematics
2 answers:
alex41 [277]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

y = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

remove the constant, 6:

3y=24

divide both by 3. leave x by itself

3y/3=24/3

y = 8

do these steps and you can do these easily

adell [148]4 years ago
3 0

The answer is y = 8

First, move the constate (+6) to the right hand side and change it's sign.

3y = 30 -6

Then subtract the numbers 30 - 6 (=24)

3y = 24

Finally, divide both sides of the equation by 3 so that y is standing alone.

y = 8

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motikmotik

Answer:

Option C:   $ \sqrt{\textbf{121}} $

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the side length of a square is 11 units.

Note that $ \sqrt{121} = \pm 11 $

Since, length cannot be negative, we can eliminate - 11.

Hence, the length of the side of the square is 11 units = $ \sqrt{11^2} = \sqrt{121} $.

Hence, the answer.

7 0
3 years ago
I need help with this
liberstina [14]
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4 0
4 years ago
Consider the probability that fewer than 26 out of 107 cell phone calls will be disconnected. Assume the probability that a give
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

We assume the condition of independence satisifed.

We need to check the following conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=107*0.98=104.86 \geq 10

n(1-p)=107*(1-0.98)=2.14 < 10

So we see that we satisfy the first condition, but the second no so then we can't apply the approximation for this case, since we need both conditions at the same time in order to use the normal approximation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=107, p=0.98)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

We assume the condition of independence satisifed.

We need to check the following conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=107*0.98=104.86 \geq 10

n(1-p)=107*(1-0.98)=2.14 < 10

So we see that we satisfy the first condition, but the second no so then we can't apply the approximation for this case, since we need both conditions at the same time in order to use the normal approximation.

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3 years ago
Someone help me with this question please
Naily [24]

Answer: t\geq 1

Step-by-step explanation:

you would multiply by 3 on both sides to get the division to go away.

then subtract 8 from both sides.

then you have your answer

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3 years ago
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Masteriza [31]
Provide electricty is the answer because if you use elec
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