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Mashcka [7]
3 years ago
9

Ideally, you should develop a risk management plan for a specific project because _________

Business
1 answer:
rusak2 [61]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

A risk management plan is a document which is prepared by the project manager to eliminate the risks and chances of any loss or issues related to the project.

Every project has to follow the risk management plan to ensure the safety of the people and capital invested in the project.

It is also contained in the documents of the risk assessment plan which has to be followed by project manager and people.

It is decided during the baseline, the risks and the cures related to the project. As the boss and the project manger is committed to follow the risk management techniques it should be considered on a priority basis.

You might be interested in
You have been managing a $3 million portfolio. The portfolio has a beta of 1.10 and a required rate of return of 10%. The curren
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

The Required rate of return on Portfolio is 9.67%

Explanation:

In order to get the answer first we need to calculate the new beta of portfolio.  The weight of portfolio and new stock is calculated using total value of investment in portfolio and multiplying by the total investment we get new beta.  

(3M / 3.6M) x 1.10 + (0.6M / 3.6M) x 0.60 = 1.01667

Through using the CAPM Model we get risk premium of Existing Portfolio:

Required rate of return of portfolio = RF + ( Rm - RF ) x beta

10% = 5.6% + (Rm -RF) x 1.10

10% - 5.6% = (Rm - RF) x 1.10

4.4% / 1.10 = (Rm - RF)

(Rm - RF) = 4%

After getting the Risk Premium we can CAPM model equation to get New Required rate of return.

Required rate of return of portfolio = RF + ( Rm - RF ) x beta

Required rate of return of portfolio = 5.6% + 4% x 1.01667

Required Rate of Return of Portfolio = 9.67%

8 0
4 years ago
Axcel Software began a new development project in 2020. The project reached technological feasibility on June 30, 2021, and was
erik [133]

Answer:

$471,000.

Explanation:

Using percentage of revenue method calculating amortization rate:

$3,102,000 / ( $3,102,000 + $7,238,000 ) = 30%

The amortization of development cost of Axcel software will be the cost after 30 June 2021 when project reached technological feasibility till product release date which is $1,570,000.

Amortization of software development costs for year 2022 :

$1,570,000 * 30% = $471,000.

8 0
3 years ago
Question number 6 I need help
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

6. a)

total fixed costs = $600,000

product mix:

1 Diablo: 2 Call of Duty: 3 Sekiro: 4 Starcraft II

Contribution margin per unit:

  • Diablo = $55 - $22 = $33
  • Call of Duty = $48 - 17 = $31
  • Sekiro = $33 - $12 = $21
  • Starcraft = $22 - $11 = $11

Contribution margin per product mix = $33 + (2 x $31)) + (3 x $21) + (4 x $11) = $172

break even number (in product mix) = $600,000 / $172 = 3,488.37 ≈ 3,489 product mixes

6.b)

  • Diablo = 3,489 games
  • Call of Duty = 3,489 x 2 = 6,978 games
  • Sekiro = 3,489 x 3 = 10,467 games
  • Starcraft = 3,489 x 4 = 13,956 games

7 0
4 years ago
g An investor has invested $600,000 in a new rental property. Her estimated annual costs are $16,000 and annual revenues are $48
Tamiku [17]

Answer:

5.09%

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

IRR can be calculated using a financial calculator.

Cash flow in year 0 = $-600,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 29 = $48,000 - $16,000 = $32,000

Cash flow in year 30 = $32,000 + $500,000 = $532,000

IRR = 5.09%

To find the IRR using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
A bond with a $1,000 par value sells for $895. The coupon rate is 7%, the bonds mature in 20 years, and coupon interest is paid
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

After tax cost of debt is 5.239%

Explanation:

Given:

Face value = $1,000

Bond price = $895

Coupon payments = 0.035×1,000 = $35 (coupon payment is paid semi-annually so 7% is divided by 2)

Maturity = 20×2 = 40 periods

Using bond price formula:

Bond price = Present value of face value + present value of coupon payments

Use excel function =RATE(nper,pmt,PV,FV) to calculate cost of debt.

substituting the values:

=RATE(40,35,-895,1000)

we get Pre-Tax cost of debt = 4.03% semi- annual

Annual rate is 4.03%×2 = 8.06%

Note: PV is negative as bond price is cash outflow.

After tax cost of debt = 8.06(1 - 0.35)

                                     = 5.239%

3 0
4 years ago
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