Answer: 1 year and 6 months
Explanation:
The cash flows are as follows,
Year 0 = ($2,500)
Year 1 = $1,500
Year 2 = $1,500
Year 3 = $1,500
Payback period is the time it will take to break even the intial investment (In this question the initial investment is $2,500)
The sum of the cashflows of year1 and year2 is equal to $3,000
which means that the payback period is somewhere bbetween year 1 and year2
1500/3000 = 0.5 year or 6 months
the total payback period is 1 year and 6 months
Answer:
Follows are the solution to this question:
Explanation:
Follows are the two ways of describing its high return:
Firstly, the mutual fund is invested in pretty unstable debt and is reciprocating with greater yields for taking a risk.
Secondly, during every decrease in bond yields, the finance kept bonds so the income on stocks exceeded this same rate of interest significantly. Remember that bond costs skyrocket as interest rates drop as well as give the purchaser an investment income. Because once interest rates are now close to zero, it's also likely that they could increase as well as the owners would then lose their money. Its high return could be due to a drop in interest rates, and not only will it not be replicated, but the low or even low return will almost definitely be followed by either a rise in interest rates.
I believe it is write the names over and over again because that is is the most effective way to memorize kinetically.
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