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zzz [600]
3 years ago
10

How did industrialization cause political and social changes in europe and the united states

History
1 answer:
zhuklara [117]3 years ago
6 0

When it comes to the question of world industrialization, we speak of a process that has manifested itself in an extremely unequal way around the globe.

England was the country that first developed in this sense in the so-called First Industrial Revolution. Before that, only handicrafts and manufacturing were known, and there was no systematic production process guided by the presence of machinery, as occurs in factories.

Reflecting industrial development, we realize that the countries considered developed are precisely those that first industrialized. Thus, their social geographical spaces, although still presenting contradictions and inequalities, are more modern in relation to peripheral or developing countries. Moreover, even as large multinationals spread around the world, it is the rich countries that house their headquarters - particularly the so-called Global Cities, such as New York and London - and dominate the major forms of technology.

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Inequality in the country had not gotten better after the Gilded Age, in fact by 1912 2% of all Americans controlled 60% of the
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That statement is true

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How was the populist movement a reaction to the second industrial revolution?
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According to historical records, the populist movement was considered a reaction to the second industrial revolution because it tackled the sociopolitical and economic challenges of that era.

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The populist movement reacted to these new challenges and opportunities because many of the second industrial revolutions were initiated by private individuals whose motives were to earn profits through their investments.

The drive for profits in the second industrial revolution leads to the rise of capitalism in which the populist movement is against.

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Learn more here: brainly.com/question/21969641

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