Answer:
How is the Munich conference an example of appeasement?
An example of appeasement is the infamous 1938 Munich Agreement, in which Great Britain sought to avoid war with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy by taking no action to prevent Italy's invasion of Ethiopia in 1935 or Germany's annexation of Austria in 1938.
Explanation:
According to the research that I made, this is the passage that explains why the book entitled “The Sellout” by Paul Beatty won the Booker Prize and it is because of its content which is about the privilege of white male.
Because they could afford it. The Roman education system was based on the Greek system, so why not learn it in Greece. The Romans education was based on the classical Greek tradition but infused with Roman politics, cosmology, and religious beliefs. The only children to receive a formal education were the children of the rich. The very rich families employed a private tutor to teach their children. Those that could not afford to do this used either slaves or sent their children to a private school.
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
Although there are no options attached, we can say the following.
One of the dilemmas Spain faced regarding the new colonies established by them was the powerful international presence of the Spanish crown in those new territories against the cost of maintaining that presence.
It is well known that the Spanish conquerors wanted to exploit the many raw materials and natural resources in their colonies to enrich the Spanish crown. However, there was an implicit cost in this feat. Indeed, a high cost it was.
Furthermore, the fear Spanish had of possible occupations by French or English settlers of territories such as Florida, made them accept the presence of Native American Indian tribes like the Seminoles. trying to protect its large peninsula.
America didn't trust the middle east anymore because that's where most of the terrorists are and they didn't want to take a chance with them attacking again
