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nordsb [41]
4 years ago
8

3(x+1)+1+2x=2(2x+2)+x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nuetrik [128]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Infinitly many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

1 Expand.

3x+3+1+2x=4x+4+x

2 Simplify  3x+3+1+2x  to  5x+4.

5x+4=4x+4+x

3 Simplify  4x+4+x  to  5x+4.

5x+4=5x+4

4 Since both sides equal, there are infinitely many solutions.

Infinitely Many Solutions

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Answer:

The answer will be 7,-3

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
There are 10 cards. Each card has one number between 1 and 10, so that every number from 1 to 10 appears once.
pychu [463]

Answer:

When a card is chosen at random with replacement five times, X is the number of times a prime number is chosen.          Here the card is chosen with replacement.  This implies probability for choosing a prime number remains the same as the previously drawn card is replaced.

The sample space= {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}

Prime numbers = {2,3,5,7}

Prob for drawing prime number = 4/10 = 0.4

is the same when replacement is done.

Also there are two outcomes either prime or non prime.  Hence in this case, X the no of times a prime number is chosen, is binomial with p =0.4 and q = 0.6 and n=5


When a card is chosen at random without replacement three times, X is the number of times an even number is chosen.

Prob for an even number = 0.5

But after one card drawn say odd number next card has prob for even number as 5/9 hence each draw is not independent of the other.  Hence not binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement six times, X is the number of times a 3 is chosen.

Here since every time replacement is done, probability of drawing a 3 remains constant = 1/10 = 0.3

i.e. each draw is independent of the other and there are only two outcomes , 3 or non 3. Hence here X is binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement multiple times, X is the number of times a card is chosen until a 5 is chosen

Here X is the number of times a card is chosen with replacement till 5 is chosen.  This is not binomial.  Here probability for drawing nth time correct 5 is  P(non 5 in the first n-1 draws)*P(5 in nth draw) = 0.1^(n-1) (0.9)

Because nCr is not appearing i.e. 5 cannot appear in any order but only in the last draw, this is not binomial.

Step-by-step explanation:


6 0
3 years ago
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Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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c² = a² + b²

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3 years ago
What is the complement of 57?
umka21 [38]
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