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Novosadov [1.4K]
3 years ago
11

A company's flexible budget for 44,000 units of production showed variable overhead costs of $57,200 and fixed overhead costs of

$60,000. The company incurred overhead costs of $105,640 while operating at a volume of 36,000 units. The total controllable cost variance is:
Business
1 answer:
dalvyx [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$1,160 Favorable

Explanation:

The computation of total controllable cost variance is shown below:-

Budgeted variable cost for 36,000 units = $57,200 × 36,000 ÷ $44,000

= $46,800

Total budgeted cost for 36,000 units = $46,800 + $60,000

= $106,800

Controllable Variance = Actual Overhead - Budgeted Overhead

= $105,640 - $106,800

= $1,160 Favorable

Therefore, for computing the controllable variance we simply deduct the budgeted overhead from actual overhead.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r)^mn

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

N = number of years  

m = number of compounding

Regency Bank : $7,600 x (1.01)^(16 x 12) = $51,347.27

King Bank : $7600 x 1.12^16 = $46,590.99

8 0
3 years ago
he following information for Cooper Enterprises is given below: December 31, 2021Assets and obligations Plan assets (at fair val
gavmur [86]

Answer:

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Explanation:

The computation of the amortization of Other Comprehensive Loss for 2022 is shown below;

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The same would be considered

7 0
3 years ago
Energizer emphasizes the importance of a relationship marketing. Why?
bearhunter [10]
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4 years ago
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Answer:

Check the explanation

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David saves money from his teaching job to buy a new boat when he retires in 20 years. The boat will cost $30,000. He has $12,00
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Answer:

True

Explanation:

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