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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
14

N(17+x)=34x−r you must solve for x

Mathematics
1 answer:
NikAS [45]3 years ago
3 0
Hello,

Work:

Equation;

n(17 + x) = 34x  - r

Use commutative property to reorder the terms.

34nx  \times (17 + x) - r

Distribute 34nx trough parenthesis.

578nx + 34nx^{2}  - r \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \: result


Hope this helps.
r3t40
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Divide 33 photos into 2 groups so the ratio is 4 to 7
lapo4ka [179]
First you'll need two equations ( you can use any variables you want)
A= photo group 1
B= photo group 2
First equation:
A + B = 33
This is because the total number of photos from both groups is 33
Second equation:
4A = 7B
This is because the ratio is 4:7 so for every four photos in group A there must be 7 photons in group B.
Then take the first equation A + B = 33 and subtract B from both sides. Making the equation A = 33 - B
Then with that equation, substitute it in for equation 2 and it will look like this. 4(33-B) = 7B
Then distribute the 4 to the 33 and the -B making the equation 132 - 4B = 7B
Then add 4B to each side
Making the equation 132 = 11B
Then to get B by itself you must divide each side by 11 making the equation 132/11 = B which simplifies to 12 = B
Then plug in 12 for B in the first equation like this A + 12 = 33
Then subtract 12 on each side of the equation to isolate A so A = 21

So
A = 21
B = 12
4 0
4 years ago
4(x+1.5)=38 solve for x
Kitty [74]

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

4(x+1.5)=38

Distribute the 4

4x +6 = 38

Subtract 6 from each side

4x+6-6 = 38-6

4x = 32

Divide each side by 4

4x/4 = 32/4

x = 8

3 0
4 years ago
Pilates is a popular set of exercises for the treatment of individuals with lower back pain. The method has six basic principles
mariarad [96]

Answer:

p_v =P(z>2.087) =0.0184

So with the p value obtained and using the significance level given \alpha=0.01 we have p_v>\alpha so we can conclude that we have enough evidence to FAIL to reject the null hypothesis, and we can said that at 1% of significance the mean for the control group it's not significantly higher than the mean of the treatment group by 1 point.  

Step-by-step explanation:

When we have two independent samples from two normal distributions with equal variances we are assuming that  

\sigma^2_1 =\sigma^2_2 =\sigma^2

\sigma=2.5

And the statistic is given by this formula:

z=\frac{(\bar X_1 -\bar X_2)-(\mu_{1}-\mu_2)}{\sigma\sqrt{\frac{1}{n_1}}+\frac{1}{n_2}}

Where z follows a normal standard distribution

The system of hypothesis on this case are:

Null hypothesis: \mu_c \leq \mu_t+1

Alternative hypothesis: \mu_c >\mu_t+1

Or equivalently:

Null hypothesis: \mu_c - \mu_t \leq 1

Alternative hypothesis: \mu_c-\mu_t>1

Our notation on this case :

n_c =45 represent the sample size for group control

n_t =45 represent the sample size for group  treatment

\bar X_c =5.2 represent the sample mean for the group control

\bar X_t =3.1 represent the sample mean for the group treatment

And now we can calculate the statistic:

z=\frac{(5.2-3.1)-(1)}{2.5\sqrt{\frac{1}{45}}+\frac{1}{45}}=2.087  

And now we can calculate the p value using the alternative hypothesis:

p_v =P(z>2.087) =0.0184

So with the p value obtained and using the significance level given \alpha=0.01 we have p_v>\alpha so we can conclude that we have enough evidence to FAIL to reject the null hypothesis, and we can said that at 1% of significance the mean for the control group it's not significantly higher than the mean of the treatment group by 1 point.  

5 0
4 years ago
HELPPP. i need help with this i have trouble with ordered pairs
Anton [14]
The second one i got (0,-2) first one i got (0,9)
8 0
3 years ago
What is -5+3
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:-2

Step-by-step explanation:

if you count from -5 and take away 3 it will give you -2

8 0
3 years ago
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