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Nuetrik [128]
3 years ago
9

Keith had two hundred sixteen dollars to spend on six books. After

Mathematics
2 answers:
jenyasd209 [6]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 33$ each

Step-by-step explanation:

you start by subtracting 18 from 216 to get rid of the leftover money.

you'll have ended up with the number 198

divide 198 by 6 and that will be your answer.

Dima020 [189]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$34.66

Step-by-step explanation:

216-8= 208 divided by 6 = 34.666666

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Why the output is a zero number ?<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28x%20-%203%29%20%5Ctimes%20%28x%20%20%20%2B%204%29%20%3
ELEN [110]

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

(x - 3) × (x + 4) = 0, that is

(x - 3)(x + 4) = 0

The zero product indicates that (x - 3) = 0 or (x + 4) = 0

x - 3 = 0 ⇒ x = 3

x + 4 = 0 ⇒ x = - 4

Thus if x = 3, then

(3 - 3)(x + 4) = 0 × (x + 4) = 0

Similarly if x = - 4 the output is zero

4 0
3 years ago
Convert the decimal to a fraction in simplest form. 0.0625
Fed [463]

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:


5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
En 6 - 2x = 6x - 10x + 8 .​
Semmy [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

6-2x=6x-10x+8

6-2x=-4x+8

6-8=-4x+2x

-2=-2x

X=-2/-2

X=1

PLS MARK ME AS THE BRAINLIEST

6 0
3 years ago
In order to compare the real estate markets in Pittsburgh and Philadelphia, a realtor selected
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

The price of the homes in the Pittsburgh sample typically vary by about $267,210 from the mean home price of $500,000.

Step-by-step explanation:

The dotplots reveal that the variability of home prices in the Pittsburgh sample is greater than the variability of home prices in the Philadelphia sample. Therefore, the standard deviation of the home prices for the Pittsburgh sample is $267,210 rather than $100,740. The correct interpretation of this statistic is that the price of homes in Pittsburgh typically vary by about $267,210 from the mean home price of $500,000.

5 0
2 years ago
Which angle is an x-intercept for the function y = cos(1)<br> A.0<br> B.2<br> C. £<br> D. 2£
noname [10]

Answer: C. \pi

=======================================================

Explanation:

The x intercept always occurs when y = 0.

Use the unit circle to determine that \cos(\theta) = 0 when \theta = \frac{\pi}{2} \text{ and } \theta = \frac{3\pi}{2}

So if x = \pi, then we have

y = \cos\left(\frac{1}{2}x\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\\\y = 0\\\\

which shows us that (\pi, 0) is the location of one of the infinitely many x intercepts for this function.

3 0
2 years ago
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