Taylor wants to generate a graph to show how is she doing at saving. What tool should she use?

To allocate corporate costs to divisions, the ideal situation would be for the allocation base to?

Sedbober [7]

To allocate corporate costs to divisions, the ideal situation would be for the allocation base to have the best cause-and-effect relationship with the costs.

Corporate overhead is constructed from the costs incurred to run the executive facet of an enterprise. those prices encompass the accounting, human sources, felony, marketing, and sales features. Whilst corporate costs are incurred, they're considered to be period charges, and so are charged to cost as incurred.

Overhead expenses are extraordinary from working fees, together with raw materials or employee wages, that are directly related to a company's services and products. Corporate costs may additionally track overhead and other fees to determine their destroy-even factors and perceive approaches to cut costs.

Commercial enterprise prices may also be called deductions. In widespread, organizations have some limitations and unique concerns for enterprise fee deductions. they may be commonly divided into corporate costs and operational costs.

Learn more about corporate costs here brainly.com/question/25109150

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3 0

2 years ago

Accounting is indispensable to management discuss?

Anastaziya [24]

Accounting is one of the main components to being able to manage a company, their inventory, assets, revenue and debt. Without the methods of accounting, how would management be able to understand how to business is doing financially so they can continue what they are doing or find new solutions? Management accounting focuses on gathering data from internal and external sources and turning it into factual data that a company uses to make decisions.

6 0

3 years ago

Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc

tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

- Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

- Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

- Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

- Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Modern companies tend to deal with many different suppliers in order to avoid problems that can arise when one supplier is unabl

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

The answer to the question is false.

6 0

3 years ago

Over the next three years, Distant Groves wl pay annual dividends of $.65, S.70, and $.75 a share, respectively. After that, div

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

c) $5.68

Explanation:

The worth of this stock today is the present value of the future dividends which is computed by discounting future dividends as well as the terminal value using the required rate of return of 14.5% as the appropriate discount rate as shown thus:

Year 1 dividend=$.65

Year 2 dividend=$0.70

Year 3 dividend=$0.75

terminal value of dividends=Year 3 dividend*(1+g)/Ke-g

g=dividend terminal growth rate=2%

Ke=required rate of return=14.5%

terminal value of dividends=$0.75*(1+2%)/(14.5%-2%)=$ 6.12

Share price=$.65/(1+14.5%)^1+$.70/(1+14.5%)^2+$.75/(1+14.5%)^3+$6.12/(1+14.5%)^3

share price=$5.68

5 0

3 years ago