Answer:
(Sales volume * Price) – (Variable costs + Fixed costs)
Explanation:
Profit is equal to Total sales less Total costs .
Here, Total costs is the addition of Variable and Fixed costs
(Sales Volume x Price) - (Variable Costs + Fixed Costs).
Answer:
The correct answer would be, $70500
Explanation:
Raw Material Turnover means what amount of raw materials is used within a specific period of time. So the raw material turnover would be calculated by adding the beginning inventory with the amount of material used within the period, and then the remaining material will be deducted. So the whole calculations are shown as follows:
Beginning Raw Material Inventory: $5000
Raw Material Used: $71500
Ending Raw Material Inventory: $6000
Raw Material Inventory Turnover:
Beginning Inventory + Raw Material Used - Ending Raw Material
= 5000+71500-6000= $70500
Answer:
Final value= $2,282.013
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Erick is planning to invest $500 at the end of year one, 800 at the end of year two, and 900 at the end of year three at 4.5 percent interest.
To calculate the total final value of the investment, we need to use the following formula for each deposit:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
Deposit 1= 500*1.045^2= 546.013
Deposit 2= 800*1.045= 836
Deposit 3= 900
Final value= $2,282.013
Answer: D. The investor has no tax liability on distributions received, and the investment company has no tax liability on retained income
Explanation:
Municipal Securities are exempt of Federal taxes and this is what makes them most attractive. An investor in a mutual fund which invests solely in municipal securities will therefore not have any tax liability because their returns would be based on securities that are federally tax exempt. The same goes for any income the Mutual fund intends to retain.
Answer:
Explanation:
a) investors wil receive 6% x ( 1-0.35)
= 3.9% risk free debt after tax.
After tax return from risk free preferred stock earnings must be equal.
to evaluate the cost of capital fro preferred stock = 3.9%/(1-0.15)
= 4.59%
b) the after-tax debt cost of capital = 6% x (1- 0.40)
= 3.60%.
therefore, 3.60% is cheaper than the 4.59% preffered stoch cost per capital
c) r* = 1 - [{(1 - 0.40)(1 - 0.15)} / (1 - 0.35)] = 1 - 0.7846 = 0.2154, or 21.54%
Hence, 4.59% x (1 - 0.2154) = 3.60%
