I mean this is your opinion, but i believe it shouldn’t because it’s harming others.
C. Technically, you couldn't stop people from voting based on their race, but at the time, you could put restrictions on voting. Most white men were educated, and those who weren't could read basic, common words. Black men, historically couldn't read, so literacy tests were an attempt to make it so that black people couldn't vote. Poll taxes were the same way, the white men could afford to pay the poll tax, but the black men couldn't due to their mostly low paying jobs. Lastly, if a white man couldn't read, or couldn't afford to pay the tax, they shouldn't have been allowed to vote, so in order to make it so that they could vote a "grandfather clause" was instated. This made it so that if your father had voted, you could vote. This meant that any white man could vote.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was Legislation outlawing discrimination in public accommodations and employment on the basis of race, skin, color, sex, religion, or national origin.
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There wasn't enough money in circulation to support a healthy economy.<span> was a result of the bank failures that followed the stock market </span>
