Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": Payments or adjustments to the original obligations.
Explanation:
Research Development Test & Evaluation (RDT&E) funds are dedicated to cover costs of specific research, development, testing and assessment activities. Once deadlines to present the research are due, the funds can be directed to maintenance of laboratories or any other payment or adjustment besides the initial purpose of that money.
Answer and Explanation:
There is no contract between Time's and Joshua, because it is not legally binding to each other and it has not been signed by either party. So not a single party is liable for the contract as the contract is unsigned and non-liable
Time has used it as a promotional means only for promoting magazine subscriptions.
Therefore, a case can not be built on letter-based basis.
So, the correct option is A, This one is only to see if you're familiar with the schedule variance calculation. To use the SV formula, simply enter the values: SV = EV – PV
What is Schedule variance (SV)?
A project's schedule variance serves as a gauge for whether it is on time or not. It is frequently used in earned value management (EVM) to give project managers an update on the status of the work during the analysis stage. A monetary unit is often used to represent a schedule variance, with negative values used to indicate any delays. The budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) represents the cost of the actual work completed, whereas the budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS) measures the budget for the full project. The schedule variance is the difference between these two numbers.
To learn more about Schedule variance (SV)
brainly.com/question/14257077
#SPJ4
Answer:
Return on investment ≈ 29%
Explanation:
<em><u>using excel function </u></em>
Determine :
Rate = 7% / 12 = 0.0058
Nper value = 30 years * 12 = 360
PV = -$150,000
∴ PMT value = $997.95
next : calculate the outstanding balance 15 years later
= ( 997.95 / 0.00583 ) * ( 1 - ( 1 / ( 1 + 0.00583 )^15*12 ))
= 171174.96 * 0.6489
= $ 111,075.43
<u>Considering the opportunity to refinance </u>
Rate = 6% /12 = 0.005
Nper = 15 * 12 = 180
Pv = - $111,075.43
∴ PMT = 937.32
the monthly saved up payment = PMT 1 - PMT 2
= 997.95 - 937.32 = $60.63
Finally
Rate of return on investment
= 2500 = 60.63 * 
hence Rate of return ≈ 29 %
attached below is a screenshot of the excel function used for question 2 and it can be used for question 1 as well just change the values
<span>1.41
The quick ratio is the sum of assets that can be quickly liquidated divided by the liabilities. In this case, the assets are the cash of $316 and the accounts payable of $709. The inventory doesn't count since it can't be quickly converted to liquid assets. The liabilities are the accounts payable of $709. So let's do the math.
(316 + 687)/709 = 1003/709 = 1.41
So the result is 1.41</span>
