1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
ValentinkaMS [17]
3 years ago
13

Which of the following reasons is the best possible explanation for the changes in Europe's population since 1750?

History
2 answers:
pogonyaev3 years ago
6 0
"An increase in scientific and medical discoveries improved life expectancies" is the one reason among the following choices given in the question that <span>is the best possible explanation for the changes in Europe's population since 1750. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is the first option.</span>
andriy [413]3 years ago
3 0

The correct answer is A) An increase in scientific and medical discoveries improved life expectancies.

An increase in scientific and medical discoveries improved life expectancies is the best possible explanation for the changes in Europe's population since 1750.

Life population in Europa changed in the 1750s. The levels of mortality decreased and the levels of fertility increased. Educated people started to design their plan of life, meaning that people became more interested in deciding how many children they wanted to have; this means birth planning. The discovery of effective vaccines, better medicine, and the penicillin, helped to increase and improve the lives of people in Europe.

You might be interested in
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Why?
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

I agree, Spice trading allowed empires to buy in bulk to have for thier empire and resell the spices to countries that were harder to accces. Spice trading became a deserible good that everyone wanted which led to countries to take over spice countries to continue making profit.

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
What principle is expressed by the Latin phrase e pluribus unum? What does the phrase mean in English?
irinina [24]

The Latin phrase "E Pluribus unum" means in English "Out of many, one". The principle that it expresses is basically union. This union refers to the Union formed by the separate states. It is clenched in the eagle's beak on the Great Seal of the United States.

In the Council-Manager form of Government, the City Council is the governing body voted by the citizens. The Council hires a City Manager to be the chief executive of the city government. The tasks that City Managers develop have to do with being in tune with the elected officials and directing the city's bureaucracy. They also advise the City Council on decision-making and carry on his wishes. Currently, this type of government is one of the two predominant forms of government and this is due to the fact that is a way to get rid of the abuses of the spoils system found in municipalities of the political machine.

A plea bargain refers to any type of agreement or deal that has to do with a criminal case between the defendant and the prosecutor in which the defendant agrees to plead guilty to a charge. the benefit of doing so could be that by pleading guilty, the defendant gets in return a more lenient sentence. In other cases, when there are multiple charges, the defendant may plead guilty to only one of the charges, to get all of some of the other charges dropped or dismissed.

A plea bargain also allows both parties to avoid a lengthly trial.


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLZ HELPPPPPP! WILL MARK BRAINLYIST
timama [110]

Answer: Corporal punishment is physical punishment under law that includes imprisonment and death. (A)

Explanation: This is right on Edguinity 2021. Have a good day. Peace. Brainliest?..................

8 0
3 years ago
What was the Holocaust and how did it
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

The Holocaust is when hitler was ruling. Life in concentration camps were miserable.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
The immediate cause of the French and Indian War was a conflict over __________.
m_a_m_a [10]
The competition of land between Britain and France.

I hope this is correct and I hope this helps :)
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • How did ancient rome and greece influence our government?
    6·1 answer
  • What civil rights achievement of each administration had the most far reaching effect on the u.s. life
    10·1 answer
  • 8th grade history homework help
    14·1 answer
  • Which statement does not accurately describe Charlemagne's achievements?
    14·2 answers
  • A colonial advantage at the beginning of the American Revolution was
    13·2 answers
  • How did Mary McLeod Bethune work to promote peace in the postwar world?
    15·1 answer
  • What country remained occupied by Germany
    9·2 answers
  • What was the purpose of the Women’s Auxiliary Army Corps (WAAC)?
    12·1 answer
  • 2. Which revolution most directly addressed the unequal distribution of
    10·1 answer
  • Which court would next hear the case in this scenario?
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!