Question

PLEASSSE HELP ASAP PRETTY PLEASEEEEEEE

Answer 1

Answer:

Third option. I am sure it!

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark other guy brainliest. He's a great answer and he helped me before

Answer 2

Answer:

The third option choice

Step-by-step explanation:

Here you have the term (n^-6)(p^3)

(n^-6)(p^3) = (n^-6)(p^3)/1

[And whole number can be written over 1. For example, 4 = 4/1.]

You can see that n has a negative exponent, -6.

My teacher taught it to me like this:

If this is our expression;

(n^-6)(p^3)

---------------  <------ [and thats a fraction bar]

       1

Think of the fraction bar as a bunk bed. Since the (n^-6) isn't happy being "on top of the bunk bed," [since its a negative exponent] move it to the bottom bunk.

So your new expression would be:

 (p^3)

--------------  <-------- [fraction bar]

 (n^6)

Moving n^6 to the bottom changes it into a positive exponent.

So, the third option choice would be correct.

That's the best way I can explain it! I hope this helps!!! :)