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ad-work [718]
4 years ago
15

The wealth effect refers to the fact that

Business
1 answer:
Stella [2.4K]4 years ago
3 0

The wealth effect refers to the fact that when the price falls, the real value of household wealth rises and consumption will also rise. The wealth effect causes movement along the demand and supply curve due to the value of money and items changing. The wealth effect is used to determine people spending more money when the value of their assets rise.

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Soar Incorporated is considering eliminating its mountain bike division, which reported an operating loss for the recent year of
makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

$133,000 decrease

Explanation:

The computation of the impact on the operating income is shown below:

Sales for the year    $1,052,000

Less:

Variable cost -$862,000

Contribution margin $190,000

Less:

Fixed cost for 30% of $190,000   -$57,000

Impact on the operating income $133,000

This amount reflects the decrease in the operating income

5 0
3 years ago
Which one of the following regarding the State Disability Insurance (SDI) program is true?
solmaris [256]

Answer:

B) The State Disability Insurance (SDI) program benefits received for a period of disability are not taxable as income, but benefits received for time off under the Paid Family Leave program are federally taxable as income.

Explanation:

Disability insurance benefits are not reported for tax purposes with one exception. If a person are receiving unemployment insurance benefits,

become unable to work due to a disability, and begin receiving disability insurance benefits, your disability insurance benefits are considered a substitution for your unemployment insurance benefits,  and will then be reported for tax purposes.

If disability insurance benefits are reported, a notice will accompany the first benefit payment sent to you advising  that the benefits are being reported to the Internal Revenue Service.  The employment development department will provide you with a 1099G tax form in January showing the reported amounts paid and forward a copy to the Internal Revenue Service.

Paid family leave benefits are reported for federal purposes but not state tax purposes.

Paid family leave benefits are not taxable or reported to the California State Franchise Tax Board.

4 0
4 years ago
6x²+x-28<br><br><br>solve this everyone​
barxatty [35]

Answer:

x = 2.0785  and  x = -2.245

Explanation:

The following is the step by step solution to the problem.

6x² + x - 28 = 0

Where,

a = 6

b = 1

c = -28

Using the formula,

x = [(-b + √((b)² - 4ac)) /  2a] and x =  [(-b - √((b)² - 4ac)) /  2a]

x = [(-1 + √((1)² - 4(6)(-28))) /  2(6)] and x =  [(-1 - √((1)² - 4(6)(-28))) /  2(6)]

x = [(-1 + 25.94) / 12   and   x = [(-1 - 25.94) / 12

x = 2.0785  and  x = -2.245

8 0
3 years ago
Greg eats pizza every day of the week. The marginal utility of pizza will most likely ________ by the end of the week, and all e
KatRina [158]

Answer:

decline and diminishing marginal utility

Explanation:

According to the law of diminishing marginal utility,  when a person consumes more and more units, the marginal utility arises from each additional unit goes reduced as marginal utility is an additional unit derived.

According to the given situation, grey eats pizza every day so the marginal utility goes decline that indicates the law of diminishing marginal utility

8 0
4 years ago
A share of stock is now selling for $90. It will pay a dividend of $10 per share at the end of the year. Its beta is 1. What do
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

$96.20

Explanation:

A share of stock is now selling for $90. It will pay a dividend of $10 per share at the end of the year. Its beta is 1. What do investors expect the stock to sell for at the end of the year? Assume the risk-free rate is 4% and the expected rate of return on the market is 18%

Find complete question above:

The cost of equity=risk-free rate+beta*(market return-risk-free rate)

cost of equity=4%+1*(18%-4%)=18.00%

The price of the stock today is the present value of the price in a year's time and the expected dividend.

Share price today=(dividend+future share price)/(1+r)^n

share price today=$90

dividend=$10

future share price is the unknown

r=18%

n=1( 1 year from now)

90=(10+FP)/(1+18%)^1

90=(10+FP)/1.18

90*1.18=10+FP

FVP=(90*1.18)-10=$96.20  

8 0
3 years ago
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