Answer:
$170 million
Explanation:
First we must calculate the implied fair value of goodwill:
fair value of goodwill = Sanchez's fair value - Sanchez's asset valuation = $1,020 million - $900 million = $120 million
impairment loss = recorded goodwill - fair value of goodwill = $290 million - $120 million = $170 million
An impairment loss is a loss generated by the decline of an asset's fair value.
Answer:
WACC 13.85600%
Explanation:
First we calculate Eastern Pizza CAPM:
risk free = 0.08
market rate = 0.12
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.04
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 2
Ke 0.16000
Then we solve for WACC
Ke 0.16000
Equity weight 0.8
Kd 0.08
Debt Weight 0.2
t 0.34
WACC 13.85600%
The company will use the data on eastern Pizza to evualuate project presented to it. Also, it will consider the new tax rate to determinate the tax shield.
Answer:
Total cash flow $54,613
Explanation:
The computation of the year 4 cash flow is given below:
Selling price of equipment $6,920
Book value at year 4 end $5,460
Capital gain $1,460
Tax on capital gain at 21% $306.6
So, net cash flow from the sale of equipment
= $6,920 - $307
= $6,613
Now year 4 cash flow is
Annual operating cash flow $42,000
Release of working capital $6,000
Net cash flow form sale of equipment $6,613
Total cash flow $54,613
Answer:
(a) Yes. It is an opportunity cost of new job because the additional time he spent commuting is a cost, as he can utilize that time in doing something else.
(b) Yes. It is also an opportunity cost because if a person wants to join a new job then he have to give up his current job. So, the earning of $45,000 from his current job is the opportunity cost of accepting the new job.
(c) No. It is not an opportunity cost but it is an additional benefit from the new job because he is not sacrificing anything to obtain this benefit.
Answer:
It will take 2.72 years and 32.64 months.
Explanation:
Future value is the sum of principal amount and compounded interest amount invested on a specific rate for a specific period of time.
Use following formula to calculate the time period.
FV = PV x ( 1+ r )^n
FV = Future value = $6,000
PV = Present Value = $4,000
r = rate of interest = 15% yearly = 15% / 12 = 1.25%
n = time period = ?
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1 + 1.25% )^n
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1.0125 )^n
$6,000 / $4,000 = ( 1.0125 )^n
1.5 = ( 1.0125 )^n
Log 1.5 = n log 1.0125
n = Log 1.5 / log 1.0125
n = 32.64 months
n = 2.72 years
