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Irina-Kira [14]
3 years ago
11

I make $50 each month for allowance . 40%of this goes toward lunch . How much do I spend on lunch?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alex17521 [72]3 years ago
8 0
40% can be written in decimal form as 0.4.
If I multiply $50 by 0.4:
($50)(0.4)= $20

That means that 40% of $50 is $20.
So, you spend $20 on lunch.
Bingel [31]3 years ago
7 0
Percent means parts out of 100 so
40%=40/100=4/10

'of' can be translated as multiply
50 times 4/10=200/10=20

$20=lunch
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Answer:

11 and 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter is all of the sides added together

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Area of a rectangle is length x width

7*11=77

The answers are 7 and 11 for the length and width

Whether which one is the width and which is the length depends on which side is the longest.

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3 years ago
It takes ten identical pieces to form a circular track for a pair of toy racing cars. If the inside arc of each piece is 3.4 inc
dsp73
 <span>Length of outer track = sum of length of 10 pieces = circumference of the outer circle 


if R is the Radius of outer circle then... 

Circumference of the outer track = 2pi*R 


Similarly the circumference of the inner track (with radius r) = 2pi*r 


length of each outer piece is 3.4 inch more than length of inner piece 

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3 years ago
Maggie is practicing her penalty kicks for her upcoming soccer game. During the practice, she attempts 10 penalty kicks. If each
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Answer:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013  

And adding we got:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.65)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013  

And adding we got:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262

5 0
3 years ago
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