Assigning indirect costs to specific jobs is completed by D. applying indirect costs to work in process.
<h3>What are indirect costs?</h3>
Indirect costs are costs that are not directly traceable to cost objects (e.g. a job, product, or service unit).
Indirect costs are overheads incurred as a result of a business activity but without direct impact. For example, utilities, office supplies, etc. are all indirect costs.
Thus, assigning indirect costs to specific jobs is completed by D. applying indirect costs to work in process.
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Answer:
The term has two distinct meanings–one is statistical; the other is a comprehensive quality system.
Explanation:
Here, the point fact states that it will take a six standard deviation from the mean for an error to happen.
Six Sigma evolved to define numerous ideas within the business sphere and is sometimes confusing. Firstly, it's a statistical benchmark. Any business process, which produces less than 3.4 defects per 1 million chances is said to be efficient. A defect is anything produced outside of consumer satisfaction. Second, it is a training and certification program, which teaches the core principles of Six Sigma. Practitioners may achieve the Six Sigma certification belt levels, ranging from white belt to black belt. Finally, it's a philosophy, which promotes the idea that all business processes can be measured and optimized.
Answer:
Retained Earnings
Explanation:
The statement of retained earnings is prepared after preparing the income statement but before preparing the balance sheet. The reason behind this is that the statement of retained earnings is used to calculate the amount of retained earnings at the end of the period to be shown in the balance sheet.
Answer:
Risk-free rate decreases
Explanation:
The CAPM formula for calculating cost of equity requires one to know the value of 3 pieces of information only:
1. the market rate of return,
2. the beta value
3. the risk-free rate.
Ra = Rrf + [Ba∗(Rm−Rrf)]
where:
Ra=Cost of Equity
Rrf = Risk-Free Rate
Ba = Beta
Rm=Market Rate of Return
From the formula
Ra = Rrf + [1.2∗(Rm−Rrf)]
Ra = Rrf + 1.2Rm - 1.2Rrf
From Ra = 1.2Rm -0.2Rrf
From the expression above, it can be seen that the lower the value of Rrf (Risk-Free rate), the higher the value of Ra.
Answer:
$710.84 million
Explanation:
Net income = $35 million
Depreciation = $20 million
Capital expenditures = $7 million
Tax rate = 21%
D/E ratio = 0.4
Growth rate = 6%
Equity beta = 1.25
So, firm's asset beta = Equity beta/(1 + D/E*(1-T))
= 1.25/(1 + 0.4*(1-0.21))
= 0.94985
So, Free Cash Flow to the Firm= NI + Depreciation - Capital expenditures
= 35 + 20 - 7
= $48 million
Risk free rate Rf = 5%
Market risk premium = 7.5%
So, firm cost of capital using CAPM is Rf + Beta*(MRP)
Kc = 5 + 0.94985*7.5
Kc = 12.1239
So, Firms value using constant dividend growth model:
FV = FCF*(1+g)/(Kc-g)
FV = 48*1.06 / 0.121239-0.06
FV = 50.88 / 0.061239
FV = 830.8430901876255
FV = $830.84 million
Debt = $120 million
Market Value of equity = FV - Debt
Market Value of equity = $830.84 million - $120 million
Market Value of equity = $710.84 million
