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disa [49]
3 years ago
9

These three please, thank you!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lerok [7]3 years ago
5 0

1. 0.01

2. 29.44

3. (69+6)/9

Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
3 0
The first one is 9/25
The second one is 29.44
The last one is 8
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x Is less than 4

Step-by-step explanation:

It will be an open circle and the arrow is going the left direction on the number 4

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Suppose corn chips cost 28.5 cents per ounce. If a bag costs $3.75, how many ounces are in the bag of chips? Round to the neares
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BRAINLIEST ASAP for BRAINLIEST!!! <br> EASY MATH! Do with explanation
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Step-by-step explanation:

you plug  0 into the (x,y) into the equation. if your finding x you plug in 0 for y and versa.  

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4 0
3 years ago
Please help me, no links or random answers, please. When you are writing the answer please number it so I know which answer is f
meriva

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b:(0,6)

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Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a box contains r red balls and w white balls. Suppose also that balls are drawn from the box one at a time, at rand
dybincka [34]

Answer: Part a) P(a)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

part b)P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is calculated as follows:

We have proability of any event E = P(E)=\frac{Favourablecases}{TotalCases}

For part a)

Probability that a red ball is drawn in first attempt = P(E_{1})=\frac{r}{r+w}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in second attempt=P(E_{2})=\frac{r-1}{r+w-1}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in third attempt = P(E_{3})=\frac{r-2}{r+w-1}

Generalising this result

Probability that a red ball is drawn in [tex}i^{th}[/tex] attempt = P(E_{i})=\frac{r-i}{r+w-i}

Thus the probability that events E_{1},E_{2}....E_{i} occur in succession is

P(E)=P(E_{1})\times P(E_{2})\times P(E_{3})\times ...

Thus P(E)=\frac{r}{r+w}\times \frac{r-1}{r+w-1}\times \frac{r-2}{r+w-2}\times ...\times \frac{1}{w}\\\\P(E)=\frac{r!}{(r+w)!}\times (w-1)!

Thus our probability becomes

P(E)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Part b)

The event " r red balls are drawn before 2 whites are drawn" can happen in 2 ways

1) 'r' red balls are drawn before 2 white balls are drawn with probability same as calculated for part a.

2) exactly 1 white ball is drawn in between 'r' draws then a red ball again at (r+1)^{th} draw

We have to calculate probability of part 2 as we have already calculated probability of part 1.

For part 2 we have to figure out how many ways are there to draw a white ball among (r) red balls which is obtained by permutations of 1 white ball among (r) red balls which equals \binom{r}{r-1}

Thus the probability becomes P(E_i)=\frac{\binom{r}{r-1}}{\binom{r+w}{r}}=\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Thus required probability of case b becomes P(E)+ P(E_{i})

= P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}\\\\

7 0
4 years ago
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