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Alika [10]
3 years ago
10

I am buying a firm with an expected perpetual cash flow of $1,000 but am unsure of its risk. If I think the beta of the firm is

.5, when in fact the beta is really 1, how much more will I offer for the firm than it is truly worth
Business
1 answer:
Leno4ka [110]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Assuming that the risk free rate is 5%, you will pay $4, 849 more

Explanation:

The beta of a company or firm is a measure of the volatility, or systematic risk of a security, as it compares to the market. The beta of a frim or company is a measure of how the company’s equity market value changes with the changes in the overall market. It shows the sensitivity of the company’s equity to changes in the market. Systematic risk is the risk that cannot be diversified. This type od risk is due to changes in the market, and because of this, it cannot be avoided. This risk is caused by factors that are external to the firm.

Assume that the $1, 000 is a perpetuity. The risk- free rate is 5%

If beta is 5, the cash flow is discounted at 55%  

PV (beta = 5) = $1, 000 / .55 = $1, 818

If, however, beta is equal to 1, the investment will yield at 15%, and the price paid for the firm should be:

PV = $1, 000 / .15 = $6, 667

The difference $4, 849 [ $6, 667 - $1, 818], is the amount you will pay if you erroneously assumed that the beta is 5 rather 1.

If the cash flow lasts only one year:

PV (beta = 5) = $1, 000 / (1 + .55) = $645

PV (beta = 1) = $1, 000 / (1 + .15) = $869

With a difference of $224.

Incorrectly assuming the value of beta has substantial effects on the calculations of cash flows.

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the equity of the corporation, a measure of the value of its assets less debt, is estimated to be 200000. linda forgoes a return
Elodia [21]

Answer:

Economic profit  = $5000

Explanation:

given data

value of assets less debt = 200000.

return = 10% per year

total revenue this year =  295000

solution

we consider here that

payroll wage and salaries  = $100000

interest paid = 40000

depreciation on equipment = 80000

supplies utility = 50000

so here we get first Total cost  that is

Total cost = payroll + interest paid + depreciation + supplies   .................1

put here value and we get

Total cost = 100000 + 40000 + 80000 + 50000  

Total cost = $270000

Thus,

Accounting profit = Total revenue - total cost    ..............2

Accounting profit  = 295000 – 270000

Accounting profit  = $25000

and we know Opportunity cost is  

Opportunity cost = 10% of $200000

Opportunity cost = 10% × 200000

Opportunity cost  = $20000

so here Economic profit  will be

Economic profit = accounting profit - opportunity cost   ..............3

Economic profit  = 25000 - 20000

Economic profit  = $5000

5 0
3 years ago
Residential Investment Payments of Factor Income to the rest of the world National Income Inventory Adjustment 0.00 Personal Con
Ivanshal [37]

Please find full question attached

Answer and Explanation:

Gross domestic product is calculated:

Gross Domestic Product(GDP) = Gross National Product (GNP)  - Receipts of factor income from rest of the world + Payments of factor income to the rest of the world

So to find GDP, we calculate GNP

GNP = NNP+Depreciation

To calculate GNP, we calculate NNP:

Net national product (NNP) =national income, so we have,

NNP = $2,445 billion

GNP = NNP + Depreciation = $2,445+$75

GNP = $2,520 billion

So we substitute in GDP formula to calculate GDP

GDP = 2,520 - 70 + 50 = $2500 billion

GDP = $2,500 billion

Government consumption and gross investment= Government transfer payments + Non-residential investments

Government consumption and gross investment is given by G

G = 200+250 = $450 billion

G = $450 billion

3 0
3 years ago
Dave's Duds reported cost of goods sold of $2,000,000 this year. The inventory account increased by $200,000 during the year to
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

a. $2,200,000

Explanation:

We solve considering the inventory identity:

$$Beginning Inventory + Purchase = Ending Inventory + COGS

$$ Purchase = (Ending Inventory - Beginning Inventory) + COGS

the difference during the year means the difference between ending and beginning inventory was of 200,000

So we plug that into the formula and solve

$$ Purchase = +200,000 + 2,000,000

Purchase 2,200,000

4 0
2 years ago
A company purchases shipments of machine components and uses this acceptance sampling plan: Randomly select and test 26 componen
Inessa [10]

Answer: 0.7973

Explanation:

Binomial probability formula :-

P(x)=^nC_x\ p^x(1-p)^{n-x}, where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials , p is the probability of success in one trial and n is the number of trials.

Given : The probability of getting a defect components : 0.06

If randomly select and test 26 components , then the probability that this whole shipment will be accepted will be :-

P(x

Hence, the  probability that this whole shipment will be accepted = 0.7973

7 0
3 years ago
A registered person wants to set up an investment program for a charity and will not be receiving compensation for his service.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

B) He is required to provide written notice to his broker-dealer.

Explanation:

Under self-regulatory organization (SRO) rules, if a registered person engages transaction involving private securities, he/she must provide a written notice to his firm. Even if their is no compensation involved, the firm still has the right to impose certain conditions regarding the participation of the registered person.  

4 0
3 years ago
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