Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the MIRR is shown below:
But before that terminal cash flow required to calculate
<u>
Year Cash Flows FV Factor Formula Terminal Value
</u>
<u> (Cash Flow × FV Factor) </u>
0 ($1,000)
1 $450 1.21 (1 +10%)^(2) $545
2 $450 1.1 (1 + 10%)^(1) $495
3 $450 1 1 $450
Terminal Cash Flow $1,490
now the MIRR is
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{terminal\ cash\ flow}{initial\ investment} } - 1\\\\= \sqrt[3]{\frac{\$1,490}{\$1,000} } - 1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7Bterminal%5C%20cash%5C%20flow%7D%7Binitial%5C%20investment%7D%20%7D%20-%201%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B%5C%241%2C490%7D%7B%5C%241%2C000%7D%20%7D%20-%201)
= 14.22%
As it can be seen that the MIRR is more than the WACC so the project should be accepted.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Another definition:
It is the purchase price of an asset + the costs of operating the asset
Answer:
B. Progressive elaboration
Explanation:
Progressive Elaboration is done for a specific project and then such planning is thoroughly descriptive and detailed, and the management tends to develop the plan more and more with each day, make it more accurate for the project.
In the given instance, since there is a requirement to know all the features along with characteristics of the project properly, the technique to be followed is Progressive Elaboration as all the detailed work will be done, and will be revised accordingly.
Therefore, the correct option is:
B. Progressive elaboration