I'm pretty sure it's c but don't quote me on it
No the freedom of a group of people should not cause the other set of people to have less freedom.
<h3>What is the declaration of independence?</h3>
This is the article that talked about the reason why the colonists wanted to be away from the leadership of the English people in the colonies. It talked about the issues that the people faced in the hands of Britain.
Freedom is supposed to be the universal right of all the people of the world but there are times that situations may exists that may cause some people to act like they are superior than other people.
For instance was during the colonial days, and the days that there was slavery in the United States.
The conclusion is that No the freedom of a group of people should not cause the other set of people to have less freedom.
Read more on the declaration of independence here:
brainly.com/question/9515546
#SPJ1
How about you say thanks for the question I answered, huh? Fine here it is:
During the Renaissance the cities of Italy were (especially in the north) were the largest in Europe, their culture the most urban. The other major states of Europe (such as Spain, France and England) were still much more agricultural in nature and their cities were much smaller. The one exception perhaps is the single city of Constantinople (Istanbul) which by the 15th century was on its last leg and was conquered by the Turks in 1453. Furthermore, in comparison to the Islamic cities such as Grenada, Baghdad and Alexandria even the largest European cities of Italy were much smaller than the those of the Islamic Empire(s). <span>
However, the renaissance is a very important period in European history because it is the point at which the Europeans and western civilization began to set themselves itself on a new trajectory that would find them progressing both culturally and technologically at a much faster pace than any other people on the globe.
Why did this movement start in Italy? Although it is still debatable, many historians believe Italy was well positioned for this type of development. Additionally as cultural heirs to the Roman empire they were surrounded with ancient Roman and Greek culture, which in many ways was superior to the cultures that had followed afterwards starting with the Dark Ages. Therefore this re-discovery of ancient cultural and of ancient text (mostly preserved in Arabic and re-translated into Latin or Greek) gave the Italians an advantage by gaining the wisdom of these great and ancient peoples who had united almost all of Europe. But the drive to learn and teach about the ancients and to discuss and develop their culture started in the cities, those centers for trade and scholasticism which were no doubt the prime drivers behind the Renaissance.
Hope that helps.</span><span>
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The correct answer to this question is:
A. it was seen as way to undermined the neutrality acts
<span>The
Lend Lease program basically killed the Neutrality Acts when it was lastly put
into action and pressed the US a step closer to being a full participant in the
war. It wasn't a drain on the US Treasury and isolationists weren't offended
over it because of support for the Axis powers - it wasn't why the Lend Lease
program was drafted up in the first place. It also wasn't a direct violation of
US law because it still had to be approved by Congress, however isolationists consider
it as a violation of their belief that the US shouldn't get caught up with
foreign conflicts.</span>
