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Andrej [43]
3 years ago
14

What does -8x + y = 16 solve

Mathematics
1 answer:
frez [133]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

you divide -8y by both sides and you would so that means that y=-2.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Write an equation of the line perpendicular to the given line that contains P.
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

perp. -5

y + 7 = -5(x - 4)

y + 7 = -5x + 20

y = -5x + 13

7 0
3 years ago
Factor the four-term polynomial by grouping 3x-3+x^3-4x^2
yaroslaw [1]
(x4−3x3+4x2−8)/(x+1) = x3−4x2<span>+8x−8.</span>
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4 years ago
The two-way table shows the number of books of each type in Eliza's home ​what is the probability that a randomly selected refer
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

B. 0.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the definition of the probability

Pr=\dfrac{\text{Number of all favorable outcomes}}{\text{Number of all possible outcomes}}

You have to find the probability that a randomly selected reference book is hard cover. Hence, from the table

  • Number of all possible outcomes = Number of Reference books = 25
  • Number of all favorable outcomes = Number of Hardcover Reference books = 10

So, the probability is

Pr=\dfrac{10}{25}=\dfrac{40}{100}=0.4

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent to 7 (2x - 5)
zzz [600]

Answer:

14x-35

Step-by-step explanation:

Use distributive property so,

you multiply 2x and -5 by 7

2x*7=14x

-5*7=-35

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
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