You start at (3,-5) you move left 8 units. Where do you end

Alexxx [7]

Answer:

B. The experimental probability of a 1 is 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 4 sections of equal size, the theoretical probability of landing on any one of the them is equal. The probability of landing on any one of the sections is 25%. The experimental probability is based on the results of an actual experiment, meaning spinning the spinner, and recording the results.

A. The theoretical probability of a 1 is 25%. True as explained above.

B. The experimental probability of a 1 is 25%. False. There were three spins. One spin resulted in a 1. The experimental probability of spinning a 1 is 1/3 or 33 1/3 %.

C. If you spin the same spinner again and get different results, the experimental probabilities are different, but the theoretical probabilities have not changed. True. See explanation above. The theoretical probability is always 25% for any of the sections, 1, 2, 3, or 4. The experimental probability depends on the results of the actual spins that were performed.

D. The experimental probability of a 2 is 0%. True. The spinner was spun 3 times. There was no result of a 2, so the experimental probability of landing on a 2 is 0%.

Answer: The false statement is B. The experimental probability of a 1 is 25%.

3 0

2 years ago

Which number is NOT in the solution set of the inequality x > 10?

Serjik [45]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

How Much Have I Saved? Portfolio

avanturin [10]

The time value of money calculation can be performed using formula equations or online calculators.

The correct responses are;

1) Option 3

2) Option 2

3) The difference in principal is approximately $8,000

The difference in interest earned is approximately $2,977.87

4) It is better to invest more money at the beginning of the 30 years

Reasons:

Option 1: Present value = 0

Amount invested per month, A = $25/month

The Annual Percentage Rate, APR, r = 3.25%

Number of years = 30

The future value of an annuity is given by the formula;

$\displaystyle FV_{A} = \mathbf{A \cdot \left (\frac{ \left(1 + \frac{r}{m} \right)^{m\cdot t} - 1}{\frac{r}{m} } \right)}$

In option 1, m = 12 periods per year

Therefore;

$\displaystyle FV_{A} = 25 \times \left (\frac{ \left(1 + \frac{0.0325}{12} \right)^{12 \times 30} - 1}{\frac{0.0325}{12} } \right) \approx \mathbf{15,209.3}$

Contribution = $25 × 12 × 30 = $9,000

Total interest earned = $15,209.3 - $9,000 = $6,209.3

Final balance = $15,209.3

Option 2: Present value = 0

Amount, A = $75/quarter

m = 4 periods per year

The Annual Percentage Rate, APR = 4.00%

Therefore;

The effective interest rate is therefore;

$\displaystyle r_{eff} = \left(1 + \frac{0.04}{4} \right)^4 - 1 \approx \mathbf{0.04060401}$

$\displaystyle FV_{A} = 75 \times \left (\frac{ \left(1 + \frac{0.04060401}{4} \right)^{4 \times 30} - 1}{\frac{0.04060401}{4} } \right) \approx 17,437.7$

Using an online calculator, FV = $17,467.04

Contribution = $75 × 4 × 30 = $9,000

Total interest earned = $17,467.04 - $9,000 = $8,467.04

Final balance = $17,467.04

Option 3: Present value = $1,000

APR = 6.25%

m = 12 period per year

Number of years, t = 30 years

Therefore;

$\displaystyle FV = \left (1 + \frac{0.0625}{12} \right)^{12 \times 30} \approx \mathbf{6,489.17}$

Contribution = $1,000

Total interest earned = $6,489.17 - $1,000 = $5,489.17

Final balance = $6,489.17

The table of values is therefore;

$\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|c|}Option \# &Contribution &Total Interest Earned&Final Balance\\1&\$9,000&\$6,209.3 & \$15,209.3\\2&\$9,000&\$8,467.04 &\$17,467.04\\3&\$1,000&\$5,489.17&\$6,489.17\end{array}\right]$

1) The option that has the least amount invested are option 3

Option 3 investment plan is a present value of $1,000, invested for 30 years at 6.25% APR compounded monthly.

2) Option 2 yielded the highest amount at the end of 30 years, given that the APR is higher than the APR for option 1, although the amount invested over the period are the same.

The basis of option 2 investment plan is $75 invested quarterly at 4.00% APR compounded monthly for 30 years.

3) The difference in the principal invested for the highest and lowest final balance is $9,000 - $1,000 = $8,000

The difference in the interest earned is; $8,467.04 - $5,489.17 = $2,977.87

4) In option 1 the present value is zero, therefore zero amount was invested at the beginning.

The interest to investment ration is 6,209.3:9,000 ≈ 0.7:1

In option 3, all the money was invested at the beginning.

The interest to investment ratio of option 3 is; 5,489.17:1,000 ≈ 5.5:1

Given that the interest to investment ratio, which is the return on investment is larger when more money is saved at the beginning as in option 3, it is better to invest more money at the beginning.

Learn more about future value of an annuity here:

brainly.com/question/8243704

3 0

2 years ago

Luis put out

solniwko [45]

Answer:

2 1/4 pies

Step-by-step explanation:

Find out how much pie was leftover from each pie:

Apple pie: 3/4, 4 - 3 = 1, 1/4

Blackberry: 1/2, 2 - 1 = 1, 1/2

Blueberry: 1/8, 8 - 1 = 7, 7/8

Cherry: 5/8, 8 - 5 = 3, 3/8

Peach: 3/4, 4 - 3 = 1, 1/4

There are 1/4, 1/2, 7/8, 3/8, and 1/4 pies left. The LCD if these numbers is 8, since 2*4 = 8, 4*2 = 8, and 8*1 = 8

1/4 = 2/8

1/2 = 4/8

7/8 = 7/8

3/8 = 3/8

1/4 = 2/8

2 + 4 + 7 + 3 + 2 = 18, so 18/8 pies, or 2 2/8, or 2 1/4

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If you could help I would appreciate it I

dusya [7]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

i used a calculator and the rounded

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers