Answer is given below
Explanation:
type of cash flow activity
a. Redeemed bonds ---------------Fiancing
b Issued preferred stock -----------Fiancing
c. Paid cash dividends --------------Fiancing
d. Net income --------------------------Operating
e. Sold equipment --------------------Investing
f. Purchased treasury stock -------Fiancing
g. Purchased patents ----------------Investing
h. Purchased buildings -------------Investing
i. Sold long-term investments ----Investing
j. Issued bonds ------------------------Fiancing
k. Issued common stock -----------Fiancing
Answer:
$1023.98
Explanation:
Using the standard notation equation for annual payment and for arithmetic gradient to calculate the present worth of a unit's costs; we have the following corresponding expression.
P = A (P/A, i, n) & P = G (P/G, i, n)
where;
A = annual payment
G = arithmetic gradient
n = number of years
i = annual interest rate
From the question;
the payment period = compounding period
∴ quaterly interest rate = 3%
The present worth value of the unit's cost is therefore shown as
P = 90 (P/A, 3%, 12) + 2.5(P/G, 3%, 12)
P = 90(9.954) + 2.5(51.2481)
P = $1023.98
∴ The present worth value of the unit's cost = $1023.98
Answer:
Debit to bad debt expense for $3,648
Explanation:
This is because the company needs to show the total amount in the Allowance for doubtful accounts as credit balance. It means that if for instance the balance today is $1,057 you'll need a new entry to adjust the balance with the bad debt.
It means that the entry must be a debit in bad debt expense for $3,648 while the corresponding credit goes to allowance for doubtful accounts.
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B - credit because that's the money you pay back to make sure that you make se credit for yourself