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MrMuchimi
3 years ago
15

A customer buys 100 shares of XYZ stock at $43 per share. The customer then sells 1 XYZ $45 Call contract for a premium of $500.

The call contract expires unexercised. After expiration, the customer's cost basis in the XYZ shares is:________
Business
1 answer:
tigry1 [53]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$4,300

Explanation:

Since the call expired, the $500 premium must be reported as a short term capital gain. Short term capital gains are taxed in the periods that they occur, so they do not affect the basis of the stocks. It is something similar to dividends, if you receive dividends they will be taxed as short term gains = ordinary income, bu they do not affect the stocks' basis.

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Suppose that the price of good X rises from $12.00 to $12.90, and as a result the quantity demanded of good X falls from 5,000 u
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

The price elasticity of demand is 1.14.

The price is Elastic.

Elasticity is more than one so total revenue will fall.

Explanation:

Given the initial price of good x = $12

Final price of good x = $12.90

% change in price = [(12.90 - 12) / 12] x 100 = 7.5 %

Initial quantity = 5000

Final quantity = 4600

% change in quantity = [(4600 - 5000)/5000] x 100 = -8%

Elasticity = % change in quantity / % change in price

Elasticity = 8% / 7%

Elasticity = 1.14

The price elasticity of demand is 1.14.

The price is Elastic.

Since elasticity is more than one so total revenue will fall.

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that France and Denmark both produce fish and stained glass. France's opportunity cost of producing a pane of stained gl
andriy [413]

Answer:

France has a comparative advantage in the production of stained glass.

Denmark has a comparative advantage in production of fish.

France will gain from trade as long as it gets more than 3 pounds of fish for each pane of stained glass.

Denmark can gain from trade if it gets more than 0.09 pane of stained glass for each pound of fish it exports.

4 pounds of fish per pane of stained glass.

7 pounds of fish per pane of stained glass.

Explanation:

France and Denmark both produce fish and stained glass.

France's opportunity cost of producing a pane of stained glass

= 3 pounds of fish

Denmark's opportunity cost of producing a pane of stained glass

= 11 pounds of fish

France's opportunity cost of producing a pound of fish

= \frac{1}{3}

= 0.33 pane of stained glass

Denmark's opportunity cost of producing a pound of fish

= \frac{1}{11}

= 0.09 pane of stained glass

France has a lower opportunity cost of producing stained glass so we can say it has a comparative advantage in the production of stained glass. While Denmark has a comparative advantage in the production of fish.

If both countries start to trade with each other, France will gain from trade as long as it gets more than 3 pounds of fish for each pane of stained glass.

While Denmark can gain from trade if it gets more than 0.09 pane of stained glass for each pound of fish it exports.

Both the countries will gain from trade if the trade price lies between their opportunity cost. both countries will gain from trade if the price is 4 pounds of fish per pane of stained glass or 7 pounds of fish per pane of stained glass.

8 0
3 years ago
In an economy, the government wants to increase aggregate demand by $50 billion at each price level to increase real GDP and red
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

(B) $20 billion

Explanation:

Given a certain level of MPC, an increase in government spending (G) by a certain amount translates to an increase in aggregate demand (AD) through the relationship below.

ΔAD = \frac{ΔG}{1 - MPC}

where Δ means <em>change.</em>

<em />

Therefore, given ΔAD of $50 billion, and MPC of 0.6,

ΔAD = \frac{ΔG}{1 - MPC}

= 50 = \frac{ΔG}{1 - 0.6}

= 50 = \frac{ΔG}{0.4}

= ΔG = 50 * 0.4 = 20

Therefore, increase in government purchases = $20 billion.

3 0
3 years ago
Requirement 3. Use the predetermined overhead allocation rates to compute the​ activity-based costs per unit of the commercial c
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation  

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

Download xlsx
4 0
4 years ago
Earnings per share: Select one: a. Will always be lower than the dividend paid per share b. Will always be higher than the divid
Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

b. Will always be higher than the dividend paid per share

Explanation:

A firm pays dividend to it's stockholders based upon it's earnings.

Earnings per share (EPS) is expressed as:

= \frac{Earnings\ available\ to\ stockholders}{No.\ of\ stocks\ outstanding}

Dividend payout ratio on the other hand is expressed as:

= EPS (1 - b)

wherein, b = retention ratio which denotes the percentage of earnings retained by a firm i.e not distributed as dividends.

Thus, a firm's earnings per share would always be higher than the dividend paid by it per share.

7 0
3 years ago
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