Answer:
at matilda's new job, she will make a rounded salary of $69,000 per year.
Step-by-step explanation:
when solving a problem like this, you have to take her current salary ($64,000 per year) and multiply it to the salary increase percentage by first turning the percentage into a decimal. to turn the percentage into a decimal, you imagine a tiny dot to the right of the 8 like this:
8.
and then you have to move that little dot to the left two times recreating it into .08. you multiply .08 (the salary increase percentage) by her current salary ($64,000) and then also add that number to matilda's current salary to come up with the answer you can round. I'll give you an example of my proscess just so I can give a clear visual of my explanation.
step one:
$64,000
x .08
-------------
5,120
step 2:
$64,000
+$5,120
-------------
$69,120
step 3:
$69,120 is rounded up to the nearest thousands is approximately $69,000
answer: $69,000
The records that determines the lost of different crops grown on the farm during the whole year with an annual profitability of the farm is farm income statement.
<h3>What is cash flow statement ?</h3>
Others are:
- The Farm Sales is known to be used to record all sales in rice production.
The kinds of farms sales records are:
- Daily farm records.
- Records of farm implements and tools.
- Record of agricultural inputs/assets, etc,
Cash flow statement is known to be the records that shows flows of sales intake and out of any enterprise. In terms of farming one can say farm Diary record.
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Answer:
840cm^2
Step-by-step explanation:
Volume: Area of cross section x length
Area of cross section:(15 x 8 + 4x 5 )
length: 6
So volume:
(15 x 8 + 4x 5 ) x 6 = 120 + 20 X 6 = 140x6 = 840cm^2.
Hope this helps.
Good Luck
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The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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