Because the 0.96 is less than 1, it means that the house loses value over the years.
Convert 0.96 to a percent: 0.96 = 96%
100% - 96% = 4%
The house loses 4% of it's value every year.
Answer: For the first one, 12.5% chance
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of flipping a coin and getting tails is 50%. Then, if you were to flip two coins and get both tails, you would have to divide the 50% by 2, which is equals to 25% of flipping two coins and getting them both tails.
So now we know...
Flipping one coin gives you 50% tails and 25% of flipping two coins and getting two tails
So now, we do it again with the third coin. We would divide the 25% by 2, which will get us to a 12.5% of getting all tails, or in fractions, 1/8
I’m not exactly sure about the other ones but I hope you found this one helpful!
Consider the function f(x<span>) = 2 x + 1. We recognize the equation y = 2 x + 1 as the Slope-Intercept form of the equation of a line with slope 2 and y-intercept (0,1). Think of a point moving on the </span>graph<span> of f. As the point moves toward the right it rises.
hope this helps
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Answer:
Please restate your question.
It needs the y-intercept to be decipherable.
Step-by-step explanation:
