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blagie [28]
4 years ago
6

A post closing trial balance is a list of permanent accounts and their balances afterclosing entries have been journalized and r

ecorded in the accounting system. These accounts will be carried forward and become the opening balances for the next accounting period.
Business
1 answer:
Andrew [12]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Post closing trail balance

Explanation:

As we know that

In the trial balance, it contains two sections. The one is debit that recorded expenses, and assets whereas another one are credit that recorded liabilities, revenues, and the stockholder equity

The post-closing trial balance is that trial balance that is made after passing the closing entries with respect to revenues, expenditure, dividend, net profit or net income.

The motive of this to balance the debit and the credit section which should be zero. Moreover, it is to be carried forward that would become the starting balance of the next accounting period.

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When adjusting the bank balance in a bank reconciliation, which item must be added to the bank balance?
Kruka [31]

Answer: ADJUST THE BANK STATEMENTS

Explanation:

Adjust the balance on the bank statements to the corrected balance. For doing this, you must add deposits in transit, deduct outstanding checks and add/deduct bank errors.

5 0
2 years ago
The Lime Corporation has obtained the following sales forecast data:
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

b. $248,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cash receipts for October would be

Particulars             October

Cash sales            $60000

August credit Sales $22000 (10% of $220,000)  

September Credit Sales $126000 (70% of $180,000)  

October credit Sales $40000 (20% of $200,000)

Budgeted cash receipt   $248000

Hence, the correct option is b.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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7 0
3 years ago
Which state-registered adviser is considered to have taken custody of client funds?
ra1l [238]

Under the <u>Uniform Securities Act</u>, the threshold where a State-registered adviser is considered to have taken custody of client funds if it charges prepaid advisory fees, is: <u>$500, 6 months or more in advance of rendering services.</u>

<u />

If an advisor either physically possesses or has the legal right to take possession of money or securities belonging to its clients, then it has custody. The term "custody" has been expanded by the rule's revisions to cover situations in which an adviser's related person holds custody of client assets in conjunction with the adviser's advisory services. If an investment adviser's connected broker-dealer holds client assets as a qualified custodian in conjunction with advising services, the investment adviser would be deemed to have custody of those assets.

Consultants may be considered to have taken ownership of customer funds as defined by NASAA when a nationally registered investment manager acknowledges $500 (or more) in advanced consulting fees, 6 months prior to the anticipation of performing services. While the Advisers (Investment) Act of 1940 did not apply to government-registered advisors, it is worth noting that it may have set the maximum at $1,200 among Federal Covered advisors.

To know more about State-registered adviser refer to:

brainly.com/question/17199787

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
which, among the undernoted inter-market demand correlations, would make pooling work most effectively in order to reduce demand
Yuri [45]

Answer: A correlation of 1.00 among demand in two

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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