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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
11

The following frequency table shows the number of players on the Russian Bears volleyball team that have been

Mathematics
2 answers:
Yanka [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The median number of injured players is 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The median is the number in the middle when arranged from least to greatest. As there are an even number of matches, we must add the two numbers in the middle and divide it by 2 in order to find the median number

(1+2)/2=1.5

VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The given table is

Number of injured players                 Number of matches

               0                                                            0

               1                                                             2

               2                                                            1

               3                                                            0

               4                                                            1

Using the table, we can rewrite the given data as

1, 1, 2, 4

Here, the number of observation is 4, which is an even number.

The median of an even number is

Median=\dfrac{(\frac{n}{2})\text{th term}+(\frac{n}{2}+1)\text{th term}}{2}

Median=\dfrac{(\frac{4}{2})\text{th term}+(\frac{4}{2}+1)\text{th term}}{2}

Median=\dfrac{2\text{nd term}+3\text{rd term}}{2}

2nd term is 1 and third term is 2.

Median=\dfrac{1+2}{2}

Median=\dfrac{3}{2}

Median=1.5

Therefore, the median number of injured players is 1.5.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Assume it is first down and ten in this problem. When you lose 5 yards on the sack, you are 5 yards further away. So now, it is second and 15. Then, they lose another 15 yards, so it's now third and 30. The final play is that they gain 12 yards, meaning after all the plays it is fourth down and eighteen yards to go.

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A new car is purchased for $17,000 and over time its value depreciates by one half every 3 years. What is the value of the car 1
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

The answer is "$238".

Step-by-step explanation:

Current worth= \$ 17,000

depreciates by \frac{1}{2} in 3 years.

time=  19 years

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Using formula:

\to \text{Worth=  Current worth}(1- \frac{\text{depreciates rate}}{100})^{time}

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so,

A_t=8,500\\\\A_0=17,000\\\\t=3\ years

\to A_t=A_0(1-\frac{r}{100})^t\\\\\to 8,500= 17,000(1-\frac{r}{100})^3\\\\\to \frac{8,500}{17,000}= (1-\frac{r}{100})^3\\\\\to \frac{1}{2}= (1-\frac{r}{100})^3\\\\\to (\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{1}{3}}= (1-\frac{r}{100})\\\\\to 0.793700526 = (1-\frac{r}{100})\\\\\to \frac{r}{100} = (1-0.793700526)\\\\\to \frac{r}{100} = (1-0.8)\\\\\to r= 0.2 \times 100 \\\\\to r= 20 \%

depreciates rate= 20%

\to \text{Worth=  Current worth}(1- \frac{\text{depreciates rate}}{100})^{time}

= \$ 17,000 (1- \frac{20}{100})^{19}\\\\= \$ 17,000 (1-0.2)^{19}\\\\= \$ 17,000 (0.8)^{19}\\\\= \$ 17,000 \times 0.014\\\\= \$ 238

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