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kompoz [17]
2 years ago
15

Did White Virginians enslave people of African American descents because of long held, deep seated racial bias?

History
1 answer:
Blababa [14]2 years ago
4 0

Yes, they did:  

  • In 1629, Virginia’s General Court ordered a general muster (gathering) of all the inhabitants (men, women and children) both <em>Englishe</em> (a term they used to refer to other non-English Europeans) as well as <u>Negroes</u>, who were perceived as a separate group. This goes beyond the belief that White culture was superior than the one of the Negroes; White Virginians had from the beginning a long held deep-seated antipathy to the African American descendants.
  • According to 16th century English sources, there was a serious English prejudice against Africans even before 1619. The English tended to relate blacks with apes, unbridled sexuality, and with extremely un-Christian behavior. All of these ideals created a profound prejudice against Africans, and such prejudice was carried to America as well. English also believed that the skin pigmentation of blacks had implications of evil and repugnance.
  • Therefore, White Virginians considered Africans not only as a separate group but as group of people visually, socially, and maybe biologically different, labelling them as inferior to white people. As a result, White Virginians believed that Africans “qualified” as slaves because they were different and considered them evil.

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Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
Should coaches and players be allowed to pray on the field after a game, or does this violate “separation of church and state”?
notka56 [123]

Coaches and players should be allowed to pray on the field after a game, and this does not violate separation of church and state, because base on this, government is expected to be neutral as regards religion activities.

<h3>What is separation of church and state and the impact on players ?</h3>

Separation of church and state  serves as the idea that is base on the ground that government should not have any bias interest as regards all religions.

This means that government should not   officially recognize or favor any one religion, and on the playing field too, it should not be a case, for praying base on individual religion after the match.

It should be noted that the First Amendment, that is been put in place in 1791, explain that "Congress should not be involved in making any law that can bring about the establishment of religion, even though the "separation of church and state" is not found in the United States Constitution.

Learn more about religion  on:

brainly.com/question/11541955

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5 0
1 year ago
Who discovered the South Pass to the Oregon Territory?
klio [65]
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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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NemiM [27]

Answer:

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Explanation:

I hope this answers your question.

8 0
3 years ago
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ra1l [238]
Group A is the correct answer 

6 0
2 years ago
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