No problem. Since the - and + cancel and become a -, you get
3-4
which is -1
Hope this helped.
Answer:
3/10, 30%
Step-by-step explanation:
the shaded region is 9/30 which is equivilent to 3/10 and 3/10is 30 percent.
hope this helps!
Step-by-step explanation:
1.5 mi = 2 and 1/4 min
In 43 minutes:
43 ÷ 2.15 = 20 2.15 = 2 and 1/4 min
Now you have to multiply 1.5 by 20
1.5 x 20 = 30
In 1 hour (60 minutes):
60 ÷ 2.15 = 27.9
Now you have to multiply 1.5 by 27.9
1.5 x 27.9 = 41.85
Hope this was helpful :)
Answer:
Answer:
£3692
Step-by-step explanation:
A = p(1 + r/n)^nt
Where,
A = future value
P = principal = £2350
r = interest rate = 4.2% = 0.042
n = number of periods = 1(annual)
t = time = 4 years
A = p(1 + r/n)^nt
= 2350(1 + 0.042/1)^1*4
= 2350(1 + 0.042)^4
= 2350(1.042)^4
= 2350(1.5789)
= 2770.42
A = £2770.42
Total years = 10
Remaining years = 10 – 4
= 6 years
Remaining 6 years
P = £2770.42
r = 4.9% = 0.049
n = 1
t = 6
A = p(1 + r/n)^nt
= 2770.42(1 + 0.049/1)^1*6
= 2770.42(1 + 0.049)^6
= 2770.42(1.049)^6
= 2770.42(1.3325)
= 3691.59
A = £3691.59
Approximately £3692
Thank you!
Step-by-step explanation:
7. I believe it's independent because it makes sense and if it was dependent it wouldn't make senses.
8.For T you have 2 (Ts) so that give you a 2/8= 25% so you would basically make those Ts disappear and focus on 1 out of 6 and you'd get a 16.67% chance
9. 14.2857%
10. I don't understand ;-; am I suppose to multiply or see the chance if % it would get
I'm sorry;-;
