Please explain your answer :) The shadow banking system includes each of the following except:

Current GAAP requires the allocation of total share-based compensation cost to expense on a straight-line basis over the vesting

Lisa [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is True.

Explanation:

Cost allocations move costs and revenues between cost types, cost centers and cost objects. You can define as many assignments as you need. Each assignment consists of:

- An origin assignment.

- One or more assignment destinations.

The allocation source establishes what costs should be allocated, and the allocation destinations determine where the costs should be allocated. For example, an origin of allocation may be the costs of the type of cost Electricity and Heating. Assign all electricity and heating costs to three cost centers: Workshop, Production and Sales. These cost centers are the allocation destinations.

For each assignment source, you can define an assignment level, a validity period and a variant as a group identifier. You can use a batch job to define filters to select assignment definitions and then run cost assignments automatically.

4 0

3 years ago

hornton Computer Services, Inc. has been in business for six months. The following are basic operating data for that period: Mo

nignag [31]

Answer:

The total monthly fixed cost and the variable cost per hour is $1,540 and $23

The average contribution margin per hour is $27

Explanation:

The computation of the fixed cost and the variable cost per hour by using high low method is shown below:

Variable cost per hour = (High Operating cost - low operating cost) ÷ (High service hours - low service hours)

= ($11,200 - $4,300) ÷ (420 hours - 120 hours)

= $6,900 ÷ 300 hours

= $23

Now the fixed cost equal to

= High operating cost - (High service hours × Variable cost per hour)

= $11,200 - (420 hours × $23)

= $11,200 - $9,660

= $1,540

For computing the contribution margin per hour, first we have to compute the revenue per hour which is shown below:

= Revenue ÷ service hours

= $6,000 ÷ 120 hours

= $50

We know that,

The contribution per hour = Revenue per hour - variable cost per hour

= $50 - $23

= $27

8 0

3 years ago

Many years after constructing a plant asset, management spent a significant sum on the asset. Which of the following types of ex

ryzh [129]

Answer:

(1) NO As this maintenaince will be done in order to keep the current value It is an expenditure to avoid decay of the plant assets

(2) Yes it should be capitalizeds as increase the useful life of the assets (thus the depreciation will change as well as the useful years remaining increases

(3) Yes it should be. As increase the utility it will have a higher future positive cashflow in the future.

Explanation:

We are asked under which circumnstances the amont spend in the maintenance or overhaul should increase the plant asset account or be considered expense of the period.

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

After you create a new vhd, it appears as a _________ in the disk management snap-in and in server manager. 70-410

olchik [2.2K]

The answer is, "<span>uninitialized disk".

Try not to initialize the disk, which would delete the greater part of the information on it. Instating is just required when a disk is brand new and hasn't been utilized. After a disk is instated, you can make partitions on it. After a partition is made, you can design the segment to make a document framework.
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7 0

3 years ago

A portfolio manager buys $1 million of U.S. Treasury bills maturing in 90 days at a price of $990,390 and discount rate of 3.8%.

ioda

Answer:

A. Outperforming the benchmark

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the manager's portfolio

First step is to calculate the Treasury bill, bond-equivalent yield for U.S.

Using this formula

Treasury bill

=(Face value − Market value) / Market value × 365 / 90

Let plug in the formula

Treasury bill= ($1,000,000 − 990,390) / 990,390 × 365 / 90

Treasury bill=0.0097 × 0.04056

Treasury bill= 3.93%.

Second step is to calculate The total market value of the portfolio

Total market value portfolio=$990,390 + $100,000 + $200,000

Total market value portfolio= $1,290,390

Now let calculate the manager's portfolio

Manager's portfolio=3.93% ($990,390 / $1,290,390) + 4.34% ($100,000 / $1,290,390) + 4.84% ($200,000 / $1,290,390)

Manager's portfolio=3.93%(76.75%)+4.34%(7.75%)+4.84%(15.50%)

Manager's portfolio=0.0410*100

Manager's portfolio= 4.10%

Therefore Based on the above calculation the manager's portfolio is 4.10% OUTPERFORMING THE BENCHMARK because the manager's portfolio of 4.10% is higher than bond-equivalent yield benchmark portfolio of 4.0%.

7 0

3 years ago