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user100 [1]
3 years ago
15

Venezuela Co. is building a new hockey arena at a cost of $2,500,000. It received a downpayment of $500,000 from local businesse

s to support the project, and now needs to borrow $2,000,000 to complete the project. It therefore decides to issue $2,000,000 of 10.5%, 10-year bonds. These bonds were issued on January 1, 2013, and pay interest annually on each January 1. The bonds yield 10%. Venezuela paid $50,000 in bond issue costs related to the bond sale.
Instructions

(a)
Prepare the journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds and the related bond issue costs incurred on January 1, 2013.

(b)
Prepare a bond amortization schedule up to and including January 1, 2017, using the effective-interest method.

(c)
Assume that on July 1, 2016, Venezuela Co. redeems half of the bonds at a cost of $1,065,000 plus accrued interest. Prepare the journal entry to record this redemption.
Business
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

cash                             2,011,446 debit

unamortized bond cost  50,000 debit

            bonds payable               2,000,000 credit

            premium on BP                     61,446 credit

--to record issuance--

# Beg. Carrying //cash   // expense //Amortization// End.Carrying Value

1 2,061,446  210,000   206144.57 3855.43  2,057,590

2 2,057,590  210,000  205759.02 -4240.98  2,053,349

3 2,053,349  210,000  205334.93 -4665.07  2,048,684

4 2,048,684  210,000  204868.42 -5131.58  2,043,553

5 2,043,553  210,000  204355.26 -5644.74  2,037,908

Bonds payable          1,000,000 debit

premium on BP              24,342 debit

issuance cost expense 25,000 debit

interest expense           51,217.1  debit

loss at redemption        41.959,9‬ debit

  cash                                                     1,117,500 credit                      

  unarmortized bond issuance cost       25,000 credit

Explanation:

First, we solve the value collected which is the present value of the coupon payment and maturity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 210,000.000

time 10

rate 0.1

210000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-10} }{0.1} = PV\\

PV $1,290,359.0922

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   2,000,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.1

\frac{2000000}{(1 + 0.1)^{10} } = PV  

PV   771,086.58

PV c  $  1,290,359.0922

PV m  $     771,086.5789

Total  $  2,061,445.6711

Now, we solve for the premium

2,061,446 - 2,000,000 = 61,446 premium

the interst expense will be calcualte as carrying value times market rate

the cash will be the same for every period thus 210,000

Finally, the difference will be the amortizationon the premium

If redem on July 1st 2016 we need to record the interst:

2,048,684 x .05 = 102.434,2/2 = 51.217,1

cash interest: 1,000,000 x 10.5% / 2  = 52,500

<em>Total cash</em>

52,500 interest

<u>1,065,000 bonds </u>

 1,117,500

portion of unamortized cost 25,000

face value 1,000,000

portion of premium: 48,684/2 = 24.342‬

the loss f redemption will be the difference between the interest expense, amoritzation on premiun and write-off of the face value with the amount of cash outlay.

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So, the probability of winning:

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P(win) = \frac{1}{^5^0C_6} \\\\P (win) = \frac{6! X (50 - 6)!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{6! X 44!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{1}{15,890,700}

The probability of losing would be:

P(loss) = 1 - P(win)

P(loss) = 1 - \frac{1}{15,890,700} \\\\P(loss) = \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700}

According to the question,

When we win, then we gain $10 million and lose the cost of the lottery ticket.

So,

$10,000,000 - 1 = $9,999,999

When we lose, then we lose the cost of the lottery ticket = $1

The expected value is the sum of the product of each possibility x with its probability P(x):

E(x) = ∑ xP(x)

= 9,999,999 X \frac{1}{15,890,700}  + ( -1 ) X \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700} \\\\=- \frac{5,890,700}{15,890,700} \\\\= - \frac{58,907}{158,907} \\\\= - 0.37

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Escents, a body lotion manufacturer from Canada, negotiated a contract with a shea butter company in Mali, Africa, to supply 40%
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A major problem in developing countries is insufficient and often damaged infrastructure. There are lack of roads and other mean of access to quite some areas in the country and those routes that do have road networks sometimes see trade still hampered by damage to those road networks.

Sometimes there would be potholes that require careful maneuvering and sometimes the roads would be washed out. In this case Escents is experiencing Dela due to washed-out roads or faulty bridges which are examples of infrastructural damage.

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¿Que es un mapa estratégico?
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3 years ago
Arkansas Corporation manufactures liquid chemicals A and B from a joint process. It allocates joint costs on the basis of sales
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

The company's cost to produce 1,000 gallons of product B is $7,131.25.

Explanation:

This can be calculatd as follows:

Product B share of joint cost = (Product B sales value / (Product B sales value + Product A sales value)) * Cost to split-off point = ($32.20 / ($32.20 + $3.00)) * $5,500 = 0.914772727272727 * $5,500 = 5,031.25

Product B total additional separable process beyond split-off = Additional cost per gallon * Number of gallons of product B produced = $2.10 * 1,000 = $2,100

Therefore, we have:

Company's cost to produce 1,000 gallons of product B = Product B share of joint cost + Product B total additional separable process beyond split-off = 5,031.25 + $2,100 = $7,131.25

Therefore, the company's cost to produce 1,000 gallons of product B is $7,131.25.

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3 years ago
A job can be done with Machine A that costs $12,500 and has annual end-of-year maintenance costs of $5000; its salvage value aft
sdas [7]

Answer and Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

Present value = Amount ÷ (1 + r)^n

Machine A

Year           Amount        Discount Factor      PV

1                  $5,000           1.05                  $4,761.90

2                $5,000                                     $4,535.15

3               $5,000                                      $4,319.19

Total                                                          $13,616.24

Now

Present value of salvage value =$2,000 ÷ 1.05^3 = $1,727.68

Present worth of Machine A is

= -$12,500 - $13,616.24 + $1,727.68

= -$24,388.56

Similarly Present worth of Machine B = -$15,000 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05 -$4,000 ÷ (1.05)^2 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05^3 - $4,000 ÷ 1.05^4 + $1,500 ÷ 1.05^4

=-$24,658.94

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine A is better because it has higher present worth

Annual worth:

For machine A = -$12,500(A/PA,5%,3) -$5,000+$2,000(A/F,5%,3)

=-$12,500 × 0.367 - $5,000 + $2,000 × 0.317

= -$8,953.5

For Machine B:

=  -$15,000(A/P,5%,4) - $4,000 + $1,500(A/F,5%,4)

= -$7,882.16

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine B is better because it has higher annual worth

Capitalized cost:

Machine A :

= -$12,500+$2,000(P/F,5%,3) - $5,000 ÷ 0.05

=  -$12,500 + $2,000 × 0.86 - $5,000 ÷ 0.05

= -$110,772

Machine B :

=-$15,000(P/F,5%,4) - $4000 ÷ 0.05

=-$15,000 × 0.82 - $4,000 ÷ 0.05

= -$93,765.9

Based on the comparison between Machine A and Machine B

Machine B is better because it has lower capitalized cost

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3 years ago
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