A 22-year-old woman presents in moderate distress, complaining of diffuse lower abdominal pain. She states that the pain has bec

Question

2 years ago

13

A 22-year-old woman presents in moderate distress, complaining of diffuse lower abdominal pain. She states that the pain has bec

ome progressively worse for the past two weeks and she is now unable to walk without an increase in pain. Your physical exam reveals severe pain with palpation of the lower abdomen and the following vital signs: heart rate 102, blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, and respirations 20. Which of the following statements made by the patient would most indicate the presence of pelvic inflammatory disease?A. My boyfriend was just diagnosed with chlamydia.B. My last menstrual cycle was normal.C. I have chronic urinary tract infections.D. I just had an IUD inserted.

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2 answers:

OverLord2011 [107] · Answer 1 · 2022-09-04T04:34:34+03:00

OverLord2011 [107]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Pelvic Inflammatory disease is caused by presence of STI like chlamydia. Recent insertion of IUD greatly increase the risk of developing PID.

D is the most direct indicator of presence of PID

Jet001 [13] · Answer 2 · 2022-09-04T05:55:02+03:00

Jet001 [13]2 years ago

6 0

Answer: option A ( my boyfriend was just diagnosed with Chlamydia)

Explanation: Since the system wouldn't permit the submission of explanation with words it conciders "vulgar", you can see the attached for explanation.