Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
Answer:
Raj can look on his pay stub to find the total is $400
Step-by-step explanation:
The relation between the deposit and the total pay is ...
deposit = 0.40 × total pay
total pay = deposit / 0.40 = 160/0.40 = 400
Raj was paid $400 this week.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
This problem is solved using the Pythagorean theorem (a2+b2=c2). In this formula a and b are the legs of the right triangle while c is the hypotenuse.
Using the labels of our triangle we have:
o2+a2=h2
\dpi{100} h^{2}=(10ft)^{2} +(17ft)^{2}
h2=100ft2+289ft2
h=389ft2−−−−−√
→19.7ft
Answer:
5:1
Step-by-step explanation:
The sides on the bigger triangle is 5 times the size of the sides on the smaller triangle.
