Answer:
$183,200
Explanation:
Given that,
Direct labor = $86,000
Total current manufacturing costs = $381,000
Manufacturing overhead is applied to production:
= 130% of direct labor cost
= 1.30 × $86,000
= $111,800
Total manufacturing costs = Direct material + Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead.
$381,000 = Direct material + $86,000 + $111,800
Direct material = $381,000 - $86,000 - $111,800
= $183,200
Therefore, the amount of direct materials used in production is $183,200.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Fixed cost is
= $500,000 + $1,000,000
= $1,500,000
And, the marginal cost is
= $0.25 + $0.10
= $0.35 per paer
Now
as we know that
AFC = FC ÷ Q
Now for At 1,000,000 papers,
AFC is
= 1,500,000 ÷ 1,000,000
= $1.50/mo
At 800,000
, it would be
AFC = 1,500,000 ÷ 800,000
= $1.875/mo
MC = $0.35 per paper and the same is not changed
Now for break even, the average total cost is
ATC = AFC + AVC
ATC = FC ÷ Q + VC ÷ Q
VC = MC × Q
ATC = FC ÷ Q + MC
ATC = FC ÷ Q + 0.35
At Q = 1,000,000,
ATC = 1.50 + 0.35
ATC = $1.85
At Q = 800,000
, it would be
ATC = 1.875 + 0.35
= $2.225
As it can be seen that
The AFC changes from 1.50 to 1.875 which shows an increment of 0.375.
The MC remains constant or same at 0.35 as the printing and delivery costs per paper are remain same
And, The minimum amount that we must charge to break even rises i.e. from 1.85 to 2.225. That is a rise of 0.375
Answer:
The last option is the answer -$141.80
Explanation:
we will use the present value formula for Trish she gets paid every first day of the month therefore she will receive an immediate payment of cash flow which will be added to the present value of future periodic value. Therefore we will find the difference between present values for Trish and Josh which have the same amounts which they'll receive per month.
Given: Trish and josh both receive $450 per month therefore that will be C the monthly future payment that will be received.
They will receive these amounts in a course period of Four years so that will be n = 4 x12=48 because we know that they will receive these payments every month or on a monthly basis for four years. which n represent periodic payments.
i which is the discount rate of 9.5%/12 as we know they will recieve these amounts monthly.
Therefore using the following formulas for present value annuity:
Pv = C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i] and Pv= C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i](1+i) then get the difference between these two present values for Trish and Josh.
therefore we will substitute the above values on the above mentioned formula to get the difference:
Pv= 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)] - 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)](1+9.5%/12) then we compute and get
Pv= $17911.77614 - $18053.5777
Pv = -$141.80 is the difference between the two sets of present values as one has an immediate payment and one doesn't have it.
Answer:
d. I, II and III.
Explanation:
Under the direct written off method, there is no allowance to be made so the journal entry is as follows
Bad debt expense XXXXX
To Account receivable XXXXX
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
When it seems that the account is determined to be uncollectible that it would be recorded as a bad debt expense plus it results into overstated of account receivable i.e to be shown on the balance sheet. And, neither it is to be consistent with GAAP and the accrual accounting