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Readme [11.4K]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following events would cause a rightward shift of the AD curvea rightward shift of the AD curve​, other things bein

g​ equal? A. Real GDP levels of all the nation’s major trading partners have declined.Real GDP levels of all the nation’s major trading partners have declined. B. The price level has increased this year.The price level has increased this year. C. There has been a decline in the foreign exchange value of the nation’s currency.There has been a decline in the foreign exchange value of the nation’s currency. D. Deflation has occurred during the past year.
Business
1 answer:
Karolina [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: C. There has been a decline in the foreign exchange value of the nation’s currency.

Explanation:

The Demand curve of a country can be written as an equation which is

C+I+G+(X-M)

C is consumption, I is investment, G is government expenditure, X is exports, M is imports and X-M is net exports.

When ever consumption, investment, government expenditure or net exports increase the demand curve shifts to the right and whenever they decrease the demand curve shifts to the left.

In this case when the value of the currency foreign exchange declines, the country reduce its imports because they are now more expensive as your currency's value is declining and the exports will increase because they will now be cheaper to foreign buyers as their currency is now gotten stronger. This decrease in imports and increase in exports will  increase net exports and an increase in net exports will shift the demand curve to the right

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Determine the missing amounts. Unit Selling Price Unit Variable Costs Unit Contribution Margin Contribution Margin Ratio 1. $900
Pie

Answer:

(a) = $468

(b) = 52%

(c) = $144

(d) = 28%

(e) = $1150

(f) = $920

Explanation:

    selling price   variable cost    contribution   margin contribution ratio

1.     $900             $432                  (a) $                          (b)%

2.    $200            $ (c)                     $56                            (d)%

3.  $ (e)               $(f)                       $230                          20%

contribution = selling price - variable costs

Margin contribution ratio = contribution / sales

Variable cost = selling price - contribution

Selling price = contribution / margin contribution ratio

5 0
3 years ago
The plaintiff in a product liability lawsuit has suffered $100,000 worth of damages from an automobile accident. A defect in man
OleMash [197]

Answer:

$60,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Damages suffered by Plaintiff from an automobile accident = $100,000

Responsibility of manufacturer in the accident = 60 percent

Responsibility of plaintiff in the accident = 40%

Now,

Under the doctrine of contributory negligence

The manufacturer will pay

= Damages suffered × Responsibility of manufacturer

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5 0
3 years ago
Howard Enterprises, which has three departments, recently reported the following results: A B C Sales revenue $ 12,000 $ 48,000
almond37 [142]

Answer:

<em>Department C should be closed</em>

Explanation:

To determine whether or not it will be profitable to drop a loss making department, we compare the savings in fixed cost to the lost contribution from the division.

For Howard Enterprises, the department with a negative contribution should be closed otherwise its operation would reduce the overall profit by the amount of the negative contribution.

So lets work out the contribution for each department by adding back the apportioned fixed cost. See table below

                                                           A                B                C

                                                            $                $                $             Total

Sales Revenue                               12,000      48,000        40,000    100,000

Operating cost                              11,400        59,800        50,500

Operating income                           600         (11,800)        (10,500)

*Add back apportioned fixed cost<u> 3,000       12,000        10,000</u>

Contribution                                   3,600        200            (500)

*Apportioned fixed cost

A- 12,000/100,000× 25,000 = 3,000

B- 48,000/100000   × 25,000 = 12,000

C- 40,000/100,00×25,000 = 10,000

From the above analysis, Department C generates a negative contribution.<em> It implies that it can barely cover its direct cost and so will deplete the total profit by its negative contribution. Hence, it should be closed</em>

<em>Department C should be closed</em>

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How are bonds payable usually classified on the balance sheet?
earnstyle [38]

Bonds payable that are <u>long-term obligations</u> are typically recorded on the balance sheet.

<h3><u>How do long-term liabilities work?</u></h3>

Long-term liabilities are debts owed by a business that won't be paid off for at least a year. To give a clearer picture of a company's present liquidity and its capacity to meet its obligations as they come due, the current part of long-term debt is broken out separately from other debt.

Long-term liabilities are also referred to as noncurrent liabilities or long-term debt. The balance sheet's part that may include debentures, loans, deferred tax liabilities, and pension obligations is where long-term liabilities are stated following more immediate liabilities.

Liabilities that are greater than one year in duration or that are not due within the next 12 months are referred to as long-term liabilities. The time it takes a business to convert its inventory into cash is known as its operational cycle.

Learn more about long-term liabilities  with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/17283456

#SPJ4

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