Occurs when several groups, that are largely independent in their functions, collectively contribute to a common output

On October 1st Joe charged $900 to his credit card, on October 10th he charged another $1,300 to his credit card, and on Oct

Alex

Answer:

$27.25

Explanation:

We must first determine the average balance:

(900 x 30 days) / 30 days = $900

($1,300 x 20 days) / 30 days = $866.67

($100 x 15 days) / 30 days = $50

average balance = $900 + $866.67 + $50 = $1,816.67

now we multiply times APR:

daily balance x APR/12 = $1,816.67 x (0.18/12) = $27.25

3 0

3 years ago

An insurance company offers personal property insurance.Jewelry is a special type of personal property. Jewelry coverage require

Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

D. Route requests to a work group whose members have the skill rating parameters.

Explanation:

Since in the given situation it is mentioned that the insurance company provides the insurance of personal property and the assignment should be made for jewelry appraisal that should go for the users that are skilled so here the routing approach that should be used is that the request should be made to the group of members that have the parameters of the skill ratings

So the correct option is d.

4 0

3 years ago

Determine the profit-maximizingLOADING... prices when a firm faces two markets where the inverse demand curves are Market A: p

Gala2k [10]

Answer:

Market A: $P_{A} = 20.00$

Market B: $P_{B} = 20.00$

Explanation:

Market A: $P_{A} = 80 - 2Q_{A}$ ........................ (1)

Market B: $P_{B} = 60 - 1Q_{B}$ ........................ (2)

MC = m = 20 ............................................... (3) for both markets

For Market A:

Profit maximizing price can be obtained when $P_{A} = m$

Therefore, we have:

$80 - 2Q_{A} = 20$

$80 - 20 = 2Q_{A}$

$60 = 2Q_{A}$

$Q_{A} = \frac{60}{2}$

$Q_{A} = 30$

Substituting 50 for $Q_{A}$ in equation (1), we have:

$P_{A} = 80 - 2(30)$

$P_{A} = 80 - 60$

$P_{A} = 20.00$

For Market B:

Profit maximizing price can be obtained when $P_{B} = m$

Therefore, we have:

$60 - 1Q_{B} = 20$

$60 - 20 = 1Q_{B}$

$40 = 1Q_{B}$

$Q_{B} = 40$

Substituting 80 for $Q_{B}$ in equation (2), we have:

$P_{B} = 60 - 1(40)$

$P_{B} = 20.00$

8 0

4 years ago

The market risk premium is 10.0 percent, and the risk-free rate is 4.2 percent. If the expected return on a bond is 10.5 percent

qaws [65]

Answer:Beta of the bond = 0.63

Explanation:

According to the CAPM, Capital Asset pricing mode formulae, The expected return is given as

Expected return= Risk free rate + Beta ( Market premium)

where

Expected return = 10.5 percent

Market risk premium =10.0 percent

risk-free rate is 4.2 percent.

Expected return= Risk free rate + Beta ( Market premium)

Putting their values and solving, we have

10.5% = 4.2%+ Beta (10.0%)

10.5 %- 4.2%=Beta (10.0%)

Beta=10.5 %- 4.2%/10.0%

Beta=0.63.

Beta of the bond = 0.63

6 0

3 years ago

January February March Sales $352,000 $379,000 $443,520 Purchases on Trade Credit $218,000 $240,000 $260,000 Cash Expenses $88,0

Salsk061 [2.6K]

Thus, the net cash inflow for the month of March is $2,108.

Data and Calculations:

January February March

Sales $352,000 $379,000 $443,520

Cash collections:

40% month of sales 140,800 151,600 177,408

50% a month after 176,000 189,500

10% two months after 35,200

Total collections $402,108

Credit Purchases $218,000 $240,000 $260,000

Cash payment for purchases $218,000 $240,000

Cash Expenses $88,000 $91,000 $94,000

Taxes, interest, and dividends $18,000 $20,000 $41,000

Capital Expenditures $50,000 0 $25,000

Total cash disbursements $156,000 $329,000 $400,000

Net cash inflow for March $2,108

Thus, the net cash inflow for the month of March is $2,108 ($402,108 - $400,000).

Learn more: brainly.com/question/20484362

8 0

3 years ago