Answer:
First choice:

Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
<u />
<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
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That is the first choice.
Answer:
wut?
Step-by-step explanation:
i dont know how to explain this
Answer:
Juan
Step-by-step explanation:
The number of pages that Ana, Hillary, Roger, and Juan can read in a day is shown below:
For Ana
Ana read 15% of her 46-page book.
= 15% × 46 pages
= 6.9 pages
For Hillary
Hillary read 11% of her 72-page book.
= 11% × 72 pages
= 7.92 pages
For Roger
Roger read 12% of his 68-page book.
= 12% × 68 pages
= 8.16 pages
For Juan
Juan read 14% of his 69-page book.
= 14% × 69 pages
= 9.66 pages
The person who can read greatest number of pages in a day also means the person who read the highest number of pages in a day.
From the calculation above, that person in JUAN because she can read 9.66 pages of her book in one day.
Answer:
B= 
Step-by-step explanation:
If you noticed, A=
BH is the formula for finding the area for a triangle. Your goal is to get B by it's self. Your first step will be to clear of the fraction first, so you will multiply both sides by 2. 2(A)=2(
BH). On the left, you have 2×A= On the right side, you have 2(
BH), but since you have a number in the equation, you will only use 2×
. To solve 2×
, you will cnacel out both 2's and you have 1. 1×BH will still equal BH, so you are now left will B×H.
(Your new equation looks like this by the way). 2A=BH
Since you need to get B by its self, the way to clear the H away from the B is by dividing. You will now divide the B and H aswell as 2A and H. (It will look like this)
. (Again when you have the same number or letter, you cross it out. When you divide, you won't change anything on the left side, and all you have to do on the right id to cross out the H next to the B and cross out the H on the bottom of the equation). You should be left with
= B. Now you can turn it around for your final answer. B=
.
Please let me know if i helped, how I did, and if you have any questions.